Anatomy
8 questionsWhich tract is responsible for the ventral tegmental decussation in the cerebral peduncle?
Which of the following is not formed by the external oblique muscle?
Lining epithelium of vagina is
Oxyntic cells are present in -
Which is the first bone to start ossifying?
Which of the following statements about the femoral triangle is NOT true?
Common hepatic artery is a branch of:
Inversion and eversion of foot occurs at which joint
NEET-PG 2015 - Anatomy NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 131: Which tract is responsible for the ventral tegmental decussation in the cerebral peduncle?
- A. Tectospinal tract
- B. Vestibulospinal tract
- C. Rubrospinal tract (Correct Answer)
- D. Tectobulbar tract
Explanation: The rubrospinal tract originates in the red nucleus and decussates in the ventral tegmental decussation at the level of the midbrain, before descending to the spinal cord. This decussation is the characteristic feature that distinguishes it from other descending tracts. It primarily modulates flexor muscle tone and fine motor control of distal limb muscles. The tectospinal tract originates in the superior colliculus and decussates immediately as the dorsal tegmental decussation, involved in coordinating head and eye movements in response to stimuli. The vestibulospinal tract originates in the vestibular nuclei and descends ipsilaterally and contralaterally [1], but it does not form a distinct ventral tegmental decussation in the cerebral peduncle. It is crucial for maintaining posture and balance by influencing extensor muscles [1]. The tectobulbar tract arises from the superior colliculus and projects to cranial nerve nuclei, but it does not undergo the specific ventral tegmental decussation.
Question 132: Which of the following is not formed by the external oblique muscle?
- A. Inguinal ligament
- B. Lacunar ligament
- C. Pectineal ligament
- D. Conjoint tendon (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Conjoint tendon*** - The **conjoint tendon** is formed by the conjoined aponeuroses of the **internal oblique** and **transversus abdominis muscles**, not the external oblique [1]. - It provides posterior wall reinforcement to the inguinal canal. - This is the structure that is definitively **NOT formed by the external oblique muscle**. *Lacunar ligament* - The **lacunar ligament** (Gimbernat's ligament) is a triangular fascial band formed by the medial reflection of the **inguinal ligament**. - It is derived from the **external oblique aponeurosis** and forms the medial boundary of the femoral ring. *Pectineal ligament* - The **pectineal ligament** (Cooper's ligament) is a thickening of the periosteum along the pecten pubis (pectineal line) [3]. - While it is continuous with the lacunar ligament, it is not directly formed by the external oblique muscle itself, but rather represents a separate periosteal structure. - For the purposes of this question, the conjoint tendon is the most appropriate answer as it has no contribution from the external oblique. *Inguinal ligament* - The **inguinal ligament** (Poupart's ligament) is formed by the inferomedial border of the **external oblique aponeurosis**, folding back on itself [2]. - It spans between the **anterior superior iliac spine** and the **pubic tubercle**.
Question 133: Lining epithelium of vagina is
- A. Squamous epithelium (Correct Answer)
- B. Columnar epithelium
- C. Transitional epithelium
- D. Secretory epithelium
Explanation: Squamous epithelium * The vagina is lined by stratified squamous non-keratinized epithelium [1], providing a protective barrier against friction and pathogens. * This type of epithelium is well-suited for areas subject to significant mechanical stress, such as during intercourse and childbirth. Columnar epithelium * Columnar epithelium [2] is typically found in areas specialized for secretion and absorption, such as the gastrointestinal tract and glandular linings. * It would not offer the necessary protective qualities for the vaginal environment. Transitional epithelium * Transitional epithelium is a specialized stratified epithelium found in the urinary tract, capable of stretching and distending. * It is not found in the vagina, which requires a more robust, friction-resistant lining. Secretory epithelium * While the cervix has secretory glands, the lining of the vagina itself is not primarily secretory. * The primary role of the vaginal lining is protection, not secretion, and its cells do not typically produce a large amount of substances.
Question 134: Oxyntic cells are present in -
- A. Pylorus
- B. Cardia
- C. Body (Correct Answer)
- D. None of the options
Explanation: ***Body*** - **Oxyntic cells**, also known as **parietal cells**, are predominantly located in the **fundus and body** of the stomach [1], [2]. - These cells are responsible for secreting **hydrochloric acid (HCl)** and **intrinsic factor**, which are crucial for digestion and vitamin B12 absorption [1]. - The gastric glands in the body contain the highest concentration of parietal cells [2]. *Pylorus* - The pylorus is the distal part of the stomach that connects to the duodenum. - It primarily contains **G cells**, which secrete **gastrin**, a hormone that stimulates HCl secretion from parietal cells [3]. - Pyloric glands contain mainly mucus-secreting cells, with few or no parietal cells [2]. *Cardia* - The cardia is the region near the gastroesophageal junction (entrance of the stomach). - This area primarily contains **cardiac glands** with mucus-secreting cells that protect the esophageal lining from gastric acid reflux. - Parietal cells are sparse or absent in the cardia [2]. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because the **body of the stomach** is the correct location for oxyntic cells.
Question 135: Which is the first bone to start ossifying?
- A. Femur
- B. Clavicle (Correct Answer)
- C. Tibia
- D. Mandible
Explanation: ***Clavicle*** - The **clavicle** is the **first bone to begin ossification** in the human body, starting around the **5th-6th week of gestation**. - It ossifies via **intramembranous ossification**, making it unique among long bones [1]. - This early ossification is a key landmark in fetal skeletal development and is consistently taught across medical curricula. *Mandible* - The **mandible** begins ossification around the **6th week of gestation**, shortly after the clavicle [1]. - While it is one of the earliest bones to ossify, it is **not the first**. - It also undergoes intramembranous ossification [1]. *Femur* - The **femur**, a long bone, begins ossification around the **7th-8th week of gestation** [1]. - It ossifies via **endochondral ossification**, which typically occurs later than intramembranous ossification [1]. *Tibia* - The **tibia** also begins ossification around the **7th-8th week of gestation**. - Like the femur, it follows the endochondral ossification pathway.
Question 136: Which of the following statements about the femoral triangle is NOT true?
- A. Contains the femoral vessels
- B. Floor is formed by adductor longus (Correct Answer)
- C. Lateral margin is formed by sartorius
- D. Medial margin is formed by adductor longus
Explanation: ***Floor is formed by adductor longus*** - The floor of the femoral triangle is actually formed by the **iliopsoas** laterally and the **pectineus** medially. - The **adductor longus** forms part of the medial boundary of the femoral triangle, not its floor. - This is the INCORRECT statement (correct answer for a "NOT true" question). *Contains the femoral vessels* - The femoral triangle is a crucial anatomical space containing the **femoral artery**, **femoral vein**, and **femoral nerve**. - These structures are organized from lateral to medial as nerve, artery, vein (NAVY). *Lateral margin is formed by sartorius* - The **sartorius muscle** forms the lateral boundary of the femoral triangle. - Its medial border defines one of the triangle's sides. *Medial margin is formed by adductor longus* - The **adductor longus** does form the medial boundary of the femoral triangle. - This is anatomically correct along with the inguinal ligament (superior boundary) and sartorius (lateral boundary).
Question 137: Common hepatic artery is a branch of:
- A. Splenic artery
- B. Superior mesenteric artery
- C. Inferior mesenteric artery
- D. Coeliac trunk (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Coeliac trunk*** - The **common hepatic artery** is one of the three main branches arising from the **coeliac trunk**, which is the first major anterior branch of the abdominal aorta [1]. - It typically supplies the **liver**, gallbladder, pylorus of the stomach, and part of the duodenum through its various branches [1]. *Splenic artery* - The **splenic artery** is another major branch of the coeliac trunk, primarily supplying the **spleen**, and also gives off branches to the stomach and pancreas [1]. - It does not directly give rise to the common hepatic artery. *Superior mesenteric artery* - The **superior mesenteric artery (SMA)** originates just inferior to the coeliac trunk from the abdominal aorta and supplies structures of the **midgut**, including the small intestine, and parts of the large intestine. - It is not a direct source of the common hepatic artery. *Inferior mesenteric artery* - The **inferior mesenteric artery (IMA)** arises from the abdominal aorta further inferior to the SMA and supplies the **hindgut**, including the distal transverse colon to the superior part of the rectum. - It is anatomically distinct and separate from the arterial supply to the foregut-derived organs supplied by the common hepatic artery.
Question 138: Inversion and eversion of foot occurs at which joint
- A. Ankle
- B. Subtalar (Correct Answer)
- C. Tarso-metatarsal
- D. None of the options
Explanation: ***Subtalar*** - The **subtalar joint** (talocalcaneal joint) is primarily responsible for **inversion** and **eversion** movements of the foot. - **Inversion** involves tilting the sole of the foot medially (turning inward), while **eversion** involves tilting the sole laterally (turning outward). - This joint allows the foot to **adapt to uneven surfaces** and plays a crucial role in the biomechanics of walking and running. - The subtalar joint is essential for shock absorption and balance during gait. *Ankle* - The **ankle joint** (talocrural joint) is a hinge joint primarily responsible for **dorsiflexion** and **plantarflexion** of the foot. - It allows moving the foot up and down but has minimal contribution to inversion and eversion. *Tarso-metatarsal* - The **tarso-metatarsal joints** (Lisfranc joints) connect the tarsal bones to the metatarsal bones. - These joints contribute primarily to the **stability and arch integrity** of the foot, with minimal movement capacity. - They allow slight gliding movements but not significant inversion or eversion. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because the **subtalar joint** is indeed the primary joint responsible for inversion and eversion of the foot. - Understanding foot joint biomechanics is essential for diagnosing gait abnormalities, ankle sprains, and foot pathologies.
Internal Medicine
1 questionsIn which portion of the esophagus do esophageal varices primarily occur?
NEET-PG 2015 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 131: In which portion of the esophagus do esophageal varices primarily occur?
- A. All sites
- B. Upper
- C. Lower (Correct Answer)
- D. Middle
Explanation: **Lower** - Esophageal varices are most commonly found in the **distal (lower) third of the esophagus** [1] because this is where the portal venous system (short gastric and left gastric veins) anastomoses with the systemic venous system (white esophageal veins draining into the azygous system) [1]. - Increased portal pressure (e.g., in **portal hypertension** due to liver cirrhosis) causes blood to back up into these collateral vessels, leading to their dilation and formation of varices, particularly prominent in the lower esophagus [1]. *Upper* - While some collateral circulation exists throughout the esophagus, varices are not predominantly found in the upper portion as the primary portosystemic anastomoses responsible for variceal formation are more distal. - Varices in the upper esophagus are less common and typically less clinically significant in terms of bleeding risk. *Middle* - The middle portion of the esophagus has some venous drainage, but it is not the primary site for the significant portosystemic collaterals that lead to the formation of large, high-risk varices. - Varices can extend into the middle esophagus, but their origin and highest concentration are usually in the lower third. *All sites* - While varices can technically be found at various points along the esophagus, stating "all sites" is inaccurate because they have a **marked predilection for the lower third** due to specific anatomical venous connections [1]. - The risk of rupture and bleeding is also highest in the larger varices found in the lower esophagus [1].
Obstetrics and Gynecology
1 questionsWhich of the following statements about fallopian tubes is incorrect?
NEET-PG 2015 - Obstetrics and Gynecology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 131: Which of the following statements about fallopian tubes is incorrect?
- A. Lined by cuboidal epithelium (Correct Answer)
- B. Tubal ostium is the point where the tubal canal meets the peritoneal cavity
- C. Müllerian ducts develop in females into the Fallopian tubes
- D. Isthmus is the narrower part of the tube that links to the uterus
Explanation: ***Lined by cuboidal epithelium*** - The Fallopian tubes are lined by a **ciliated columnar epithelium**, not cuboidal epithelium, which aids in ovum transport. - This ciliated epithelium is critical for moving the ovum towards the uterus and for sperm transport. *Tubal ostium is the point where the tubal canal meets the peritoneal cavity* - The **tubal ostium** specifically refers to the opening of the **infundibulum** of the Fallopian tube into the **peritoneal cavity**, where it receives the ovum after ovulation. - This opening is surrounded by **fimbriae**, which are finger-like projections that help capture the ovum. *Müllerian ducts develop in females into the Fallopian tubes* - In females, the **Müllerian ducts (paramesonephric ducts)** differentiate to form the **Fallopian tubes**, uterus, cervix, and the upper two-thirds of the vagina. - This development is crucial for the formation of the female reproductive tract in the absence of Anti-Müllerian Hormone (AMH). *Isthmus is the narrower part of the tube that links to the uterus* - The **isthmus** is indeed the **narrower, muscular segment** of the Fallopian tube that connects directly to the **uterus**. - This region is characterized by its thick muscular wall and smaller lumen.