Internal Medicine
1 questionsSausage finger appearance is associated with which of the following conditions?
NEET-PG 2015 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1321: Sausage finger appearance is associated with which of the following conditions?
- A. Rickets
- B. Hyperthyroidism
- C. Addison's disease
- D. Psoriatic arthritis (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Psoriatic arthritis*** - **Dactylitis**, or "sausage finger," is a characteristic inflammatory finding in psoriatic arthritis, resulting from inflammation of the **entire digit** [1]. - This condition involves inflammation of tendons, joints, and soft tissues which leads to diffuse swelling of fingers or toes [1]. *Rickets* - Rickets is a bone-softening disease in children caused by **vitamin D deficiency**, leading to bone deformities like bowed legs or widened wrists. - It does not present with inflammatory dactylitis or "sausage digits." *Hyperthyroidism* - Hyperthyroidism is a condition of excessive thyroid hormone production, which can cause symptoms like **tremors**, **tachycardia**, and **weight loss** [2]. - It is not associated with dactylitis or changes in finger morphology. *Addison's disease* - Addison's disease results from **adrenal insufficiency**, leading to symptoms like **fatigue**, **skin hyperpigmentation**, and hypotension. - There is no clinical association between Addison's disease and "sausage finger" appearance.
Radiology
8 questionsInvestigation of choice for soft tissue sarcoma is -
Epidural hematoma on CT scan shows which of the following?
Investigation of choice for acute intracerebral hemorrhage is -
Investigation of choice to evaluate intracranial hemorrhage of less than 48 hours is -
Cobra head appearance on excretory urography is suggestive of?
Which of the following is NOT a typical ultrasonographic finding in autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease (ARPKD)?
Which of the following X-ray findings is associated with Chilaiditi syndrome?
Which of the following statements about lipoma is radiologically true?
NEET-PG 2015 - Radiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1321: Investigation of choice for soft tissue sarcoma is -
- A. CT
- B. MRI (Correct Answer)
- C. Ultrasound
- D. X-ray
Explanation: ***MRI*** - **Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)** is the investigation of choice for soft tissue sarcomas due to its superior **soft tissue contrast resolution**, allowing for detailed assessment of tumor size, location, and extent within muscle, fat, and neurovascular structures. - MRI is crucial for **surgical planning**, helping to define tumor margins and evaluate involvement of adjacent critical structures. *CT* - While CT scans can identify masses, they have **limited soft tissue contrast resolution** compared to MRI, making it less effective for precise delineation of soft tissue sarcomas. - CT is often used for **staging to detect metastatic disease**, particularly in the lungs, rather than for primary tumor characterization. *Ultrasound* - **Ultrasound** is a good initial screening tool for soft tissue masses due to its accessibility and lack of radiation, but it is **operator-dependent** and has limitations in assessing deep or large lesions. - It can help differentiate cystic from solid lesions and guide biopsies but **lacks the comprehensive detail** of MRI for definitive diagnosis and staging. *X-ray* - **X-rays** are primarily used to visualize **bone abnormalities** and are generally not effective for evaluating soft tissue masses unless there is associated calcification or bone erosion. - They provide **minimal information** regarding the internal structure or extent of a soft tissue sarcoma.
Question 1322: Epidural hematoma on CT scan shows which of the following?
- A. Biconvex hyperdense lesion (Correct Answer)
- B. Crescent-shaped hyperdense lesion
- C. Biconcave hypodense lesion
- D. Ring-enhancing hypodense lesion
Explanation: ***Biconvex hyperdense lesion*** - An epidural hematoma is characterized by a **biconvex** (lens-shaped) collection of blood between the dura mater and the skull. - Since it is an acute hemorrhage, the blood appears **hyperdense** (bright white) on a CT scan. *Crescent-shaped hyperdense lesion* - A **crescent shape** is characteristic of an **acute subdural hematoma**, not an epidural hematoma. - While acute subdural hematomas are also hyperdense, their crescent shape (following the contour of the brain) distinguishes them from the biconvex epidural hematomas. - Epidural hematomas are limited by suture lines and appear lens-shaped, while subdural hematomas can cross suture lines. *Biconcave hypodense lesion* - A **biconcave** shape is not a standard description in neuroradiology and does not represent epidural hematoma. - **Hypodense** would indicate an older lesion or other pathology, not acute hemorrhage. *Ring-enhancing hypodense lesion* - **Ring-enhancing lesions** are typically associated with abscesses, glioblastoma, or metastatic tumors, not an acute hematoma. - A **hypodense** (darker) center with enhancement would indicate an abscess or necrotic tumor, not a fresh extravasation of blood.
Question 1323: Investigation of choice for acute intracerebral hemorrhage is -
- A. NCCT (Correct Answer)
- B. MRI
- C. PET scan
- D. None of the options
Explanation: ***NCCT*** - **Non-contrast Computed Tomography (NCCT)** is the investigation of choice for acute intracerebral hemorrhage because it can **rapidly and reliably detect acute blood** within the brain parenchyma. - Acute hemorrhage appears as a **hyperdense (bright) lesion** on NCCT, allowing for quick diagnosis and management vital in emergency settings. *MRI* - While MRI can detect hemorrhage, its sensitivity for **acute hemorrhage** can be variable, and it is **less readily available** and takes longer to perform than NCCT. - MRI is generally preferred for subacute or chronic hemorrhage, or to investigate the **underlying cause** of the bleed (e.g., tumor, vascular malformation). *PET scan* - **Positron Emission Tomography (PET) scan** primarily measures **metabolic activity** and blood flow within the brain. - It is **not suitable for detecting acute bleeding** and is typically used for diagnosing conditions like tumors, epilepsy, or neurodegenerative diseases. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because **NCCT** is indeed the gold standard for diagnosing acute intracerebral hemorrhage.
Question 1324: Investigation of choice to evaluate intracranial hemorrhage of less than 48 hours is -
- A. CT scan (Correct Answer)
- B. MRI
- C. PET
- D. SPECT
Explanation: ***CT scan*** - **Non-contrast CT** is the most sensitive and rapid imaging modality for detecting acute intracranial hemorrhage, appearing as a **hyperdense** (bright) area within the brain parenchyma or subarachnoid space. - It is readily available in emergency settings and is crucial for immediate diagnosis to guide management, especially within the first **48 hours**. *MRI* - While MRI can detect hemorrhage, its sensitivity for **acute hemorrhage** (especially within the first few hours) is less than CT, and it is more time-consuming. - MRI is superior for detecting older hemorrhage or subtle lesions, but it is not the **first-line investigation** for acute bleeding. *PET* - **Positron Emission Tomography** (PET) scans are primarily used to assess metabolic activity and blood flow in the brain, often for conditions like cancer, epilepsy, or dementia. - It does not directly visualize fresh blood and therefore is not used for the diagnosis of **acute intracranial hemorrhage**. *SPECT* - **Single-Photon Emission Computed Tomography** (SPECT) is used to evaluate cerebral blood flow and neuronal activity, similar to PET but with different tracers and resolution. - It is not indicated for the rapid assessment of **acute intracranial hemorrhage** as it does not directly image blood.
Question 1325: Cobra head appearance on excretory urography is suggestive of?
- A. Horseshoe kidney
- B. Duplication of renal pelvis
- C. Simple cyst of kidney
- D. Ureterocele (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Ureterocele*** - A **cobra head appearance** on excretory urography is a classic sign of a **ureterocele**, which is a cystic dilation of the distal ureter that protrudes into the bladder. - This appearance is due to the dilated ureter appearing like an oval or round filling defect within the bladder lumen, surrounded by a thin radiolucent halo created by the ureteral wall and urine. *Horseshoe kidney* - A horseshoe kidney is characterized by the fusion of the lower poles of the kidneys, causing a **"U" shape** across the midline, often identified by the isthmus. - It does not present with a cobra head appearance but rather a typical anatomical variation of renal position and fusion. *Duplication of renal pelvis* - Duplication of the renal pelvis involves two separate collecting systems draining one kidney, which can be seen as two distinct pelvicalyceal systems. - This condition does not create a cobra head appearance; instead, it shows an abnormal number of collecting systems within a single kidney. *Simple cyst of kidney* - A simple renal cyst typically appears as a **well-defined, anechoic (on ultrasound) or hypodense (on CT) mass** within the kidney parenchyma. - It does not involve the ureter or bladder and thus does not produce a cobra head appearance on urograms.
Question 1326: Which of the following is NOT a typical ultrasonographic finding in autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease (ARPKD)?
- A. Increased echogenicity
- B. Cysts larger than 2 cm (Correct Answer)
- C. Enlarged kidneys
- D. Corticomedullary differentiation is lost
Explanation: **Cysts larger than 2 cm** - **ARPKD** is characterized by numerous tiny cysts (typically 1-2 mm, rarely up to 1 cm) that are microscopically dilated collecting ducts, leading to diffuse renal enlargement. - Cysts larger than 2 cm are much more typical of **autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD)**, which involves macroscopic cysts of various sizes. *Enlarged kidneys* - The proliferation of dilated collecting ducts and associated interstitial fibrosis in **ARPKD** leads to significantly enlarged kidneys, which is a hallmark ultrasound finding. - This enlargement is often bilateral and can be detected prenatally or in neonates. *Increased echogenicity* - The presence of numerous tiny cysts and dense fibrous tissue throughout the renal parenchyma in **ARPKD** causes increased diffuse echogenicity on ultrasound. - This is a common and important diagnostic feature, often described as "bright" or "hyperechoic" kidneys. *Corticomedullary differentiation is lost* - In **ARPKD**, the normal distinct differentiation between the renal cortex and medulla is obliterated due to the widespread involvement of the collecting ducts and the diffuse nature of the disease. - This loss of corticomedullary differentiation is a typical finding on ultrasound for severe renal parenchymal disease, including ARPKD.
Question 1327: Which of the following X-ray findings is associated with Chilaiditi syndrome?
- A. Pseudopneumoperitoneum (Correct Answer)
- B. Pseudopneumothorax
- C. Pneumothorax
- D. Hydropneumothorax
Explanation: ***Pseudopneumoperitoneum*** - Chilaiditi syndrome is characterized by the **interposition of a loop of colon (usually transverse colon) or, less commonly, small intestine** between the liver and the right hemidiaphragm. - This anatomical variation can mimic **free air under the diaphragm** on an X-ray, leading to the misdiagnosis of pneumoperitoneum. *Pseudopneumothorax* - This term describes the appearance of **air in the pleural space** that is not actually present, which is not associated with Chilaiditi syndrome. - While Chilaiditi syndrome involves misinterpretation of air, it specifically relates to the **abdominal cavity**, not the thoracic cavity. *Pneumothorax* - A **true pneumothorax** is the presence of air in the pleural cavity causing partial or complete lung collapse, which is a significant medical emergency. - It is distinct from Chilaiditi syndrome, which involves **abdominal content displacement** mimicking abdominal free air. *Hydropneumothorax* - This condition involves the presence of both **fluid and air in the pleural cavity**. - It is a pathology of the thoracic cavity and has **no direct association** with the abdominal interposition of bowel loops seen in Chilaiditi syndrome.
Question 1328: Which of the following statements about lipoma is radiologically true?
- A. Low attenuation on CT scan (Correct Answer)
- B. Hyperechoic on ultrasound
- C. Hyperintense on fat-suppressed sequences
- D. Hyper-intense on T2-weighted MRI
Explanation: ***Low attenuation on CT scan*** - Lipomas, being composed of **fat**, appear as areas of **low attenuation** (typically -50 to -150 Hounsfield Units) on computed tomography (CT) scans. - This low attenuation is a **key diagnostic characteristic** that helps differentiate lipomas from other soft tissue masses. *Hyperechoic on ultrasound* - Lipomas typically appear **isoechoic to hypoechoic** on ultrasound, not consistently hyperechoic. - They may have a thin echogenic capsule, but the internal contents are usually similar to or less echogenic than adjacent subcutaneous fat. *Hyperintense on fat-suppressed sequences* - This is **incorrect** - lipomas show **signal dropout** (become dark/hypointense) on fat-suppressed sequences (STIR, fat-sat T1/T2). - Signal suppression on fat-saturated sequences is actually a **diagnostic feature** confirming the fatty nature of the lesion. - Note: Lipomas ARE hyperintense on standard T1-weighted imaging due to fat content. *Hyper-intense on T2-weighted MRI* - Lipomas typically show **intermediate to slightly hyperintense signal** on T2-weighted MRI, but not markedly hyperintense like fluid. - They are less bright than fluid-filled structures or highly vascular lesions on T2-weighted sequences.
Surgery
1 questionsA patient presents with abdominal pain. On physical examination there was abdominal guarding and tenderness. A plain erect chest X-ray reveals air under diaphragm. Probable diagnosis is
NEET-PG 2015 - Surgery NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1321: A patient presents with abdominal pain. On physical examination there was abdominal guarding and tenderness. A plain erect chest X-ray reveals air under diaphragm. Probable diagnosis is
- A. Perforated abdominal viscus (Correct Answer)
- B. Acute myocardial infarction
- C. Aortic dissection
- D. None of the options
Explanation: ***Perforated abdominal viscus*** - The presence of **abdominal guarding** and **tenderness** indicates peritoneal irritation, while **air under the diaphragm** on an erect chest X-ray (**pneumoperitoneum**) is a classic sign of a perforated hollow abdominal organ. - This combination strongly suggests a **perforated abdominal viscus**, such as a **perforated peptic ulcer** or perforated diverticulitis, leading to the leakage of air and intestinal contents into the peritoneal cavity. *Acute myocardial infarction* - Acute myocardial infarction primarily presents with **chest pain**, radiation to the arm/jaw, and shortness of breath, not typically severe abdominal pain with guarding. - While it can cause some epigastric discomfort, it would not explain the **pneumoperitoneum** seen on the chest X-ray. *Aortic dissection* - Aortic dissection typically causes **sudden, severe tearing chest or back pain**, often radiating to the back. - There is no direct link between aortic dissection and **air under the diaphragm** unless there's a co-existing, unrelated issue, which is not suggested by the primary symptoms. *None of the options* - Given the clear clinical and radiological findings of **pneumoperitoneum** and **peritoneal signs**, a perforated abdominal viscus is the most fitting diagnosis among the choices provided. - This option is incorrect as there is a highly probable diagnosis among the given choices.