Obstetrics and Gynecology
1 questionsWhich of the following describes the points marked in the diagram of pelvic measurements?
NEET-PG 2015 - Obstetrics and Gynecology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1311: Which of the following describes the points marked in the diagram of pelvic measurements?
- A. Diagonal conjugate (Correct Answer)
- B. Obstetric conjugate measurement
- C. True conjugate measurement
- D. Oblique conjugate measurement
Explanation: ***Diagonal conjugate*** - The image depicts a **bimanual examination** where one hand is inserted vaginally to measure the distance from the **lower border of the pubic symphysis** to the **sacral promontory**. - This measurement directly corresponds to the **diagonal conjugate**, which is a clinically estimated measurement of the pelvic inlet. *Obstetric conjugate measurement* - The **obstetric conjugate** is the smallest anteroposterior diameter through which the fetal head must pass. - It extends from the **middle of the sacral promontory** to the **innermost aspect of the pubic symphysis** and cannot be measured directly by clinical examination. *True conjugate measurement* - The **true conjugate**, also known as the anatomical conjugate, extends from the **sacral promontory** to the **upper border of the pubic symphysis**. - Like the obstetric conjugate, it is not directly palpable and must be estimated from the diagonal conjugate (true conjugate = diagonal conjugate - 1.5 to 2 cm). *Oblique conjugate measurement* - The **oblique conjugate** measures the distance between the sacroiliac joint on one side to the iliopectineal eminence on the opposite side. - This measurement is not typically assessed during a routine pelvic examination as depicted and is more relevant for identifying asymmetric pelvic deformities.
Pediatrics
1 questionsWhich of the following is not a known cause of neuroregression in children?
NEET-PG 2015 - Pediatrics NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1311: Which of the following is not a known cause of neuroregression in children?
- A. Vitamin B12 deficiency
- B. Ataxia telangiectasia
- C. ADHD (Correct Answer)
- D. Wilson's disease
Explanation: ***ADHD*** - **Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)** is a neurodevelopmental disorder characterized by persistent patterns of inattention, hyperactivity, and impulsivity. It is **not** a cause of neuroregression. - While ADHD can impact cognitive and behavioral functioning, it does not involve a loss of previously acquired developmental milestones or skills. *Wilson's disease* - **Wilson's disease** is an inherited disorder that causes **copper accumulation** in organs, particularly the liver and brain. - Neurological symptoms, including **neuroregression**, can occur due to copper toxicity in the central nervous system. *Vitamin B12 deficiency* - **Vitamin B12 deficiency** can lead to neurological complications such as **subacute combined degeneration** of the spinal cord and peripheral neuropathy. - In children, severe or prolonged deficiency can impair brain development and lead to **developmental regression**. *Ataxia telangiectasia* - **Ataxia telangiectasia** is a rare, neurodegenerative, inherited disease that affects multiple body systems. - It is characterized by progressive **cerebellar ataxia**, leading to **neuroregression** and intellectual disability over time.
Pharmacology
4 questionsModafinil is primarily used for the treatment of which of the following conditions?
Which drug is not considered a mood stabilizer?
What is the treatment for extrapyramidal side effects induced by Haloperidol?
What is the mechanism of action of duloxetine?
NEET-PG 2015 - Pharmacology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1311: Modafinil is primarily used for the treatment of which of the following conditions?
- A. Narcolepsy (Correct Answer)
- B. Sexual dysfunction
- C. Depression
- D. Anxiety
Explanation: ***Narcolepsy*** - **Modafinil** is a **eugeroic** (wakefulness-promoting agent) specifically approved and widely used for the treatment of excessive daytime sleepiness associated with **narcolepsy**. - Its mechanism involves increasing **dopamine** and **norepinephrine** levels, and modulating **orexin** pathways, promoting alertness without significant psychomotor stimulation. *Sexual dysfunction* - While sometimes explored off-label for certain types of sexual dysfunction, **modafinil** is not a primary or approved treatment for this condition. - Primary treatments for sexual dysfunction often involve specific medications like **PDE5 inhibitors** or hormone therapy, depending on the cause. *Depression* - **Modafinil** is not a primary antidepressant, although it can be used as an **adjunctive therapy** in some cases to combat residual fatigue or hypersomnia associated with depression. - Standard treatment for depression involves **selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)**, **serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs)**, or other classes of antidepressants. *Anxiety* - **Modafinil** is a stimulant-like drug and can sometimes **exacerbate anxiety** in susceptible individuals due to its catecholaminergic effects. - Primary treatments for anxiety disorders include **selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)**, **benzodiazepines** (for acute relief), and psychotherapy.
Question 1312: Which drug is not considered a mood stabilizer?
- A. Lithium
- B. Lamotrigine
- C. Imipramine (Correct Answer)
- D. Carbamazepine
Explanation: ***Imipramine*** - Imipramine is a **tricyclic antidepressant (TCA)**, primarily used to treat depression, not to stabilize mood in bipolar disorder. - TCAs can sometimes induce **mania** or hypomania in individuals with bipolar disorder, thus they are generally not used as monotherapy for mood stabilization. *Lithium* - **Lithium** is considered the gold standard and one of the oldest and most effective **mood stabilizers** for bipolar disorder. - It works by modulating **neurotransmitter systems** and second messenger pathways in the brain. *Lamotrigine* - **Lamotrigine** is an **anticonvulsant** medication that is also recognized as an effective **mood stabilizer**, particularly for preventing depressive episodes in bipolar disorder. - Its mechanism involves stabilizing neuronal membranes by blocking **voltage-gated sodium channels**. *Carbamazepine* - **Carbamazepine** is an **anticonvulsant** medication often used as a **mood stabilizer** for the treatment of acute manic and mixed episodes in bipolar disorder. - It works by reducing the excitability of nerve impulses through blocking **voltage-sensitive sodium channels**.
Question 1313: What is the treatment for extrapyramidal side effects induced by Haloperidol?
- A. Barbiturates
- B. SSRIs
- C. Benzodiazepines
- D. Anticholinergic drugs (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Anticholinergic drugs (effective treatment)*** - **Anticholinergic medications**, such as **benztropine** or **diphenhydramine**, are the primary treatment for **acute extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS)** like dystonia and parkinsonism induced by antipsychotics like haloperidol. - They work by **blocking muscarinic acetylcholine receptors**, helping to restore the balance between dopamine and acetylcholine in the basal ganglia. *Benzodiazepines (used for anxiety and muscle relaxation)* - While benzodiazepines can offer some relief for **akathisia** (a form of EPS characterized by restlessness) due to their sedative and muscle relaxant properties, they are **not the first-line treatment for other acute EPS** such as dystonia or parkinsonism. - They primarily enhance **GABAergic transmission** and are effective for anxiety and seizure control rather than direct antagonism of EPS mechanisms. *Barbiturates (used as sedative-hypnotic drugs)* - **Barbiturates** are strong central nervous system depressants used for sedation, anesthesia, and seizure control, but are **not indicated for the treatment of EPS**. - Their significant **sedative and addictive potential**, along with a narrow therapeutic index, makes them unsuitable for this purpose. *SSRIs (used for depression and anxiety)* - **SSRIs (Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors)** are antidepressants that work by increasing serotonin levels in the brain and are used to treat depression, anxiety, and obsessive-compulsive disorder. - They **do not have a direct role** in ameliorating dopamine-acetylcholine imbalance responsible for haloperidol-induced EPS.
Question 1314: What is the mechanism of action of duloxetine?
- A. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibition
- B. Selective norepinephrine reuptake inhibition
- C. Inhibition of both serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake (Correct Answer)
- D. No effect on neurotransmitter reuptake
Explanation: ***Inhibition of both serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake*** - **Duloxetine** is a **serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI)**, meaning it blocks the reuptake of both neurotransmitters, increasing their concentrations in the synaptic cleft [2]. - This dual action contributes to its efficacy in treating **depression**, **anxiety disorders**, and **neuropathic pain** [2], [3]. *Selective serotonin reuptake inhibition* - This describes the mechanism of **SSRIs (Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors)**, such as fluoxetine or sertraline, which primarily target serotonin [1]. - Duloxetine's mechanism is broader, affecting both serotonin and norepinephrine [2]. *Selective norepinephrine reuptake inhibition* - This mechanism is characteristic of medications like **atomoxetine**, used for ADHD, which primarily targets norepinephrine. - Duloxetine has a dual action, not selective to norepinephrine alone. *No effect on neurotransmitter reuptake* - Medications with no effect on neurotransmitter reuptake would not typically be effective as antidepressants or treatments for neuropathic pain. - Duloxetine's therapeutic effects are directly linked to its inhibition of reuptake for both serotonin and norepinephrine [2], [4].
Psychiatry
4 questionsWhich first-line conventional drug is commonly used in the treatment of delirium?
What is the PRIMARY psychological cause of oppositional behavior in young children?
Which of the following conditions is NOT typically associated with increased REM latency?
Most common complication of modified ECT
NEET-PG 2015 - Psychiatry NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1311: Which first-line conventional drug is commonly used in the treatment of delirium?
- A. Haloperidol (Correct Answer)
- B. Lithium carbonate
- C. Opioids
- D. Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors (SSRIs)
Explanation: ***Haloperidol*** - **Haloperidol** is a first-generation antipsychotic widely considered the **first-line conventional drug** for managing **agitation and psychotic symptoms** in delirium (particularly in the context of this 2015 exam). - Its efficacy in controlling these symptoms promptly, coupled with its availability in oral, intramuscular, and intravenous forms, makes it a preferred choice, especially in acute settings. - **Note:** Current evidence (post-2018) emphasizes non-pharmacological interventions first, with antipsychotics reserved for severe agitation when non-pharmacological measures fail. *Lithium carbonate* - **Lithium carbonate** is primarily used as a **mood stabilizer** for bipolar disorder, not for acute management of delirium. - It has a narrow therapeutic window and requires **careful monitoring of blood levels** to prevent toxicity, making it unsuitable for acute delirium management. *Opioids* - **Opioids** are mainly used for **pain management** and can actually **exacerbate delirium** due to their sedative and central nervous system depressant effects. - They are not indicated for treating the core symptoms of delirium, such as disorientation, fluctuating consciousness, or psychotic features. *Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors (SSRIs)* - **SSRIs** are primarily used for the treatment of **depression and anxiety disorders**, and their therapeutic effects take several weeks to manifest. - They are not effective for the immediate management of acute delirium and may even **worsen confusion or agitation** in some delirious patients.
Question 1312: What is the PRIMARY psychological cause of oppositional behavior in young children?
- A. Emotional distress (Correct Answer)
- B. Genetic predisposition
- C. Intellectual disability
- D. Neurological disorder
Explanation: ***Emotional distress*** - **Emotional distress**, such as anxiety, fear, sadness, or frustration, is a primary driver of oppositional behavior as children may lack the verbal or emotional regulation skills to express these feelings constructively. - Children often express their internal emotional struggles through externalizing behaviors like opposition, defiance, and irritability as a form of **maladaptive coping**. *Intellectual disability* - While children with an **intellectual disability** may exhibit oppositional behavior, it is not the primary psychological cause across all young children. - In such cases, oppositional behaviors might stem from difficulties understanding expectations, communication challenges, or a lack of coping strategies rather than being the direct psychological root of the opposition itself. *Neurological disorder* - Certain **neurological disorders** (e.g., ADHD) can contribute to behaviors that appear oppositional due to challenges with impulsivity or attention, but they are not the primary psychological cause of oppositional behavior in general. - The oppositional behavior in these cases is more a consequence of the unique cognitive and executive function challenges associated with the disorder, rather than a direct psychological state of distress. *Genetic predisposition* - **Genetic predisposition** can influence temperament and vulnerability to certain mental health conditions, thereby indirectly contributing to oppositional behavior. - However, genetics do not directly cause oppositional behavior; rather, they interact with environmental factors and a child's psychological state to either mitigate or exacerbate such behaviors.
Question 1313: Which of the following conditions is NOT typically associated with increased REM latency?
- A. First night effect
- B. SSRIs
- C. Restless leg syndrome
- D. Narcolepsy (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Narcolepsy*** - **Narcolepsy** is characterized by pathologically **decreased REM latency**, not increased. - Patients typically enter REM sleep within **15 minutes** of sleep onset (normal is 60-90 minutes). - **Sleep-onset REM periods (SOREMPs)** are a diagnostic hallmark of narcolepsy, seen on multiple sleep latency testing (MSLT). - Since narcolepsy is associated with *decreased* REM latency, it is definitively **NOT associated with increased REM latency**, making it the correct answer to this negation question. *First night effect* - The **first-night effect** refers to sleep disruption and increased REM latency during the first night of polysomnography in an unfamiliar environment. - This is a well-documented phenomenon that **increases REM latency** due to environmental stress and arousal. *SSRIs* - **Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)** significantly suppress REM sleep, leading to **increased REM latency** and decreased total REM sleep time. - This effect is mediated by increased serotonin, which inhibits cholinergic neurons involved in REM sleep generation. - SSRIs can increase REM latency by 30-90 minutes beyond normal values. *Restless leg syndrome* - **Restless leg syndrome (RLS)** primarily causes difficulty initiating sleep and sleep fragmentation due to uncomfortable leg sensations. - While RLS disrupts sleep architecture, its effect on REM latency is **variable and inconsistent** - some studies show minimal impact, while chronic sleep deprivation from RLS may actually decrease REM latency during rebound sleep. - However, RLS is not as clearly and consistently dissociated from increased REM latency as narcolepsy is.
Question 1314: Most common complication of modified ECT
- A. Amnesia (Correct Answer)
- B. Intracerebellar hemorrhage
- C. Spinal fracture
- D. Muscle pain
Explanation: ***Amnesia*** - **Memory impairment**, particularly affecting **new learning (anterograde)** and **recall of past events (retrograde)**, is the most common and bothersome complication of modified ECT. - While typically transient, some patients may experience **persistent memory difficulties**, especially with autobiographical memories. *Intracerebellar hemorrhage* - **Intracerebellar hemorrhage** is an extremely rare and severe complication of ECT, not a common one. - Such an event would typically be linked to **pre-existing vascular abnormalities** or uncontrolled hypertension during the procedure. *Spinal fracture* - **Spinal fractures** were a significant concern in **unmodified ECT** due to unattenuated muscle contractions. - However, the use of **muscle relaxants** and **anesthesia** in modified ECT has significantly reduced the risk of musculoskeletal injuries, making it uncommon. *Muscle pain* - **Muscle aches** and soreness can occur after ECT due to **succinylcholine-induced fasciculations** and general muscle contraction, particularly in the neck and back. - While common, it is usually mild and easily managed with analgesics, and not considered the "most common complication" compared to cognitive effects.