Internal Medicine
3 questionsA 50 year old male presents with fever and malaise for 4 months and pain in the knees and ankles. Blood tests are normal apart from a raised ESR. Chest x-ray shows bilateral hilar adenopathy and pulmonary infiltrates most severe in the upper and mid zones. Mantoux test is negative. What is the most likely diagnosis?
What is the most common cause of delirium?
Sausage finger appearance is associated with which of the following conditions?
NEET-PG 2015 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1301: A 50 year old male presents with fever and malaise for 4 months and pain in the knees and ankles. Blood tests are normal apart from a raised ESR. Chest x-ray shows bilateral hilar adenopathy and pulmonary infiltrates most severe in the upper and mid zones. Mantoux test is negative. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Tuberculosis
- B. Sarcoidosis (Correct Answer)
- C. Asbestosis
- D. Berylliosis
Explanation: ***Sarcoidosis*** - The constellation of **bilateral hilar adenopathy**, pulmonary infiltrates (especially in upper/mid zones), **arthralgia** (knees and ankles), and a **negative Mantoux test** in a patient with unexplained fever and malaise is highly suggestive of sarcoidosis [1]. - A **raised ESR** is a non-specific inflammatory marker often seen in sarcoidosis. *Tuberculosis* - While tuberculosis can cause fever, malaise, pulmonary infiltrates, and elevated ESR, a **negative Mantoux test** makes primary or active tuberculosis less likely in an immunocompetent individual. - **Bilateral hilar adenopathy** is also less typical of primary pulmonary tuberculosis compared to sarcoidosis. *Asbestosis* - This is an **occupational lung disease** caused by asbestos exposure, primarily presenting with **progressive dyspnea** and **restrictive lung disease**. - It characteristically involves the **lower lobes**, causes **pleural plaques**, and is not typically associated with acute arthralgia, fever, or prominent hilar adenopathy. *Berylliosis* - This is another **occupational lung disease** resulting from beryllium exposure, often mimicking sarcoidosis both clinically and pathologically [2]. - However, without a history of **beryllium exposure** and given the classic presentation, sarcoidosis is a more prevalent default diagnosis [2].
Question 1302: What is the most common cause of delirium?
- A. Infection (Correct Answer)
- B. Liver failure
- C. Belladonna poisoning
- D. None of the options
Explanation: ***Infection*** - **Infections**, particularly urinary tract infections (UTIs) or pneumonia, are a very common and often reversible cause of **delirium**, especially in elderly or immunocompromised patients [1]. - The systemic inflammatory response to infection can lead to neuroinflammation and direct effects on brain function, manifesting as acute changes in attention and cognition. *Liver failure* - While **liver failure** can cause **hepatic encephalopathy**, which presents with altered mental status, it typically has a more gradual onset and a different neurochemical profile than acute delirium caused by infection. - Hepatic encephalopathy is characterized by abnormal ammonia metabolism and often includes motor signs like **asterixis**, which are not universally present in delirium from infection. *Belladonna poisoning* - **Belladonna poisoning** (due to **anticholinergic toxicity**) can cause **delirium**, along with a constellation of symptoms like dilated pupils, dry mouth, and tachycardia. - However, it is a specific toxicological cause and not as broad or commonly encountered as infection as a general cause of new-onset delirium in hospitalized or elderly populations. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because **infection** is indeed a very common and recognized cause of delirium [1].
Question 1303: Sausage finger appearance is associated with which of the following conditions?
- A. Rickets
- B. Hyperthyroidism
- C. Addison's disease
- D. Psoriatic arthritis (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Psoriatic arthritis*** - **Dactylitis**, or "sausage finger," is a characteristic inflammatory finding in psoriatic arthritis, resulting from inflammation of the **entire digit** [1]. - This condition involves inflammation of tendons, joints, and soft tissues which leads to diffuse swelling of fingers or toes [1]. *Rickets* - Rickets is a bone-softening disease in children caused by **vitamin D deficiency**, leading to bone deformities like bowed legs or widened wrists. - It does not present with inflammatory dactylitis or "sausage digits." *Hyperthyroidism* - Hyperthyroidism is a condition of excessive thyroid hormone production, which can cause symptoms like **tremors**, **tachycardia**, and **weight loss** [2]. - It is not associated with dactylitis or changes in finger morphology. *Addison's disease* - Addison's disease results from **adrenal insufficiency**, leading to symptoms like **fatigue**, **skin hyperpigmentation**, and hypotension. - There is no clinical association between Addison's disease and "sausage finger" appearance.
Psychiatry
4 questionsThe site of lesion in Korsakoff's psychosis is
In which condition is sex reassignment surgery typically performed?
Which of the following is not typically associated with dementia?
A girl exhibits aggressive behavior such as smashing and throwing objects and verbally abusing hospital staff. However, she shows a different demeanor towards a particular resident doctor. What could be the most likely diagnosis?
NEET-PG 2015 - Psychiatry NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1301: The site of lesion in Korsakoff's psychosis is
- A. Frontal lobe
- B. Mammillary body (Correct Answer)
- C. Cingulate gyrus
- D. Corpus striatum
Explanation: ***Mammillary body*** - **Korsakoff's psychosis** is a neurocognitive disorder characterized by severe **memory impairment**, confabulation, and apathy, primarily due to **thiamine deficiency**. - The disease involves damage to several brain areas, most notably the **mammillary bodies** and the dorsal medial nucleus of the thalamus, which are critical for memory formation. *Frontal lobe* - While frontal lobe dysfunction can lead to cognitive deficits, the **primary lesion** in Korsakoff's psychosis is not typically located here. - Damage to the frontal lobe is more commonly associated with executive dysfunction, personality changes, and disinhibition, rather than the profound amnesia seen in Korsakoff's. *Cingulate gyrus* - The cingulate gyrus plays a role in emotion, learning, and memory, but it is **not considered the primary site of lesion** in Korsakoff's psychosis. - Although it can be affected, lesions in the mammillary bodies are more directly linked to the characteristic memory deficits. *Corpus striatum* - The corpus striatum is involved in motor control and habit formation, and its damage is associated with movement disorders like **Parkinson's or Huntington's disease**. - This area is **not the primary site of pathology** in Korsakoff's psychosis, which is fundamentally a memory disorder.
Question 1302: In which condition is sex reassignment surgery typically performed?
- A. Premature ejaculation
- B. Erectile dysfunction
- C. Orgasmic dysfunction
- D. Gender dysphoria (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Gender dysphoria*** - **Sex reassignment surgery** is primarily performed as part of the treatment for **gender dysphoria**, a condition where there is a marked incongruence between an individual's experienced/expressed gender and their assigned sex. - The surgery aims to align the individual's physical appearance with their **gender identity**, alleviating distress and improving quality of life. *Premature ejaculation* - This condition involves consistent or recurrent ejaculation with minimal sexual stimulation before, during, or shortly after penetration and before the person wishes it. - Treatment typically includes behavioral therapies, medication (e.g., SSRIs), and psychological counseling, not surgical intervention. *Erectile dysfunction* - **Erectile dysfunction** is the inability to achieve or maintain an erection firm enough for satisfactory sexual intercourse. - Treatments range from lifestyle changes and oral medications (e.g., PDE5 inhibitors) to vacuum devices, penile injections, and in some cases, penile implants, but not sex reassignment surgery. *Orgasmic dysfunction* - This condition refers to persistent or recurrent delay in, or absence of, orgasm following a normal phase of sexual excitement. - Management often involves psychological counseling, addressing underlying medical conditions, or adjusting medications; it does not involve sex reassignment surgery.
Question 1303: Which of the following is not typically associated with dementia?
- A. Reduced personal care
- B. Loss of neurons in brain
- C. Alteration of consciousness (Correct Answer)
- D. Forgetfulness
Explanation: ***Alteration of consciousness*** - An **alteration of consciousness** is a hallmark feature of **delirium**, which is an acute confusional state, usually fluctuating. - **Dementia** is primarily characterized by a chronic, progressive decline in cognitive function with **clear consciousness**. *Forgetfulness* - **Forgetfulness**, particularly memory loss impacting daily life, is one of the **earliest and most common symptoms** of dementia. - This symptom progressively worsens, affecting short-term and eventually long-term memory. *Reduced personal care* - As dementia progresses, individuals often experience a decline in their ability to perform **activities of daily living (ADLs)**, including personal care. - This can manifest as forgetting to bathe, difficulty dressing, or neglecting personal hygiene due to cognitive impairment. *Loss of neurons in brain* - **Neurodegeneration**, characterized by the **loss of neurons** and synapses in the brain, is the underlying pathological basis of most types of dementia, such as Alzheimer's disease. - This neuronal loss leads to brain atrophy and the cognitive deficits seen in dementia.
Question 1304: A girl exhibits aggressive behavior such as smashing and throwing objects and verbally abusing hospital staff. However, she shows a different demeanor towards a particular resident doctor. What could be the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Bipolar disorder
- B. Schizoaffective disorder
- C. Antisocial personality
- D. Borderline personality disorder (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Borderline personality disorder*** - Patients with **borderline personality disorder** often exhibit **impulsivity**, intense mood swings, and a pattern of unstable interpersonal relationships, leading to aggressive outbursts. - Their unpredictable behavior and tendency to form intense, unstable attachments or a "favorite person" dynamic are characteristic, as seen in her differing demeanor towards a particular resident doctor. *Bipolar disorder* - While bipolar disorder involves **mood swings**, the behavioral patterns are typically characterized by distinct episodes of **mania** or hypomania and depression, with less emphasis on chronic interpersonal instability and aggression. - The aggression in bipolar disorder is often associated with the manic phase but lacks the consistent pattern of relationship instability and "favorite person" dynamic described. *Schizoaffective disorder* - This disorder involves a combination of **psychotic symptoms** (like delusions or hallucinations) and **mood symptoms** (like depression or mania), which are not explicitly described here as the primary issue. - The aggressive behavior is not primarily driven by psychosis, and the specific interpersonal dynamic with staff is more suggestive of a personality disorder. *Antisocial personality* - **Antisocial personality disorder** is characterized by a pervasive pattern of disregard for and violation of the **rights of others** and may include aggression, but it often involves a lack of empathy and manipulativeness rather than the intense emotional dysregulation and unstable interpersonal patterns seen in borderline personality. - While aggressive behavior is present, the specific description of verbally abusing staff while showing a "different demeanor" towards a particular doctor points away from the typical presentation of antisocial disregard for others.
Radiology
2 questionsWhich of the following statements about lipoma is radiologically true?
In a patient with a tender and rigid abdomen, what is the expected finding on X-ray?
NEET-PG 2015 - Radiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1301: Which of the following statements about lipoma is radiologically true?
- A. Low attenuation on CT scan (Correct Answer)
- B. Hyperechoic on ultrasound
- C. Hyperintense on fat-suppressed sequences
- D. Hyper-intense on T2-weighted MRI
Explanation: ***Low attenuation on CT scan*** - Lipomas, being composed of **fat**, appear as areas of **low attenuation** (typically -50 to -150 Hounsfield Units) on computed tomography (CT) scans. - This low attenuation is a **key diagnostic characteristic** that helps differentiate lipomas from other soft tissue masses. *Hyperechoic on ultrasound* - Lipomas typically appear **isoechoic to hypoechoic** on ultrasound, not consistently hyperechoic. - They may have a thin echogenic capsule, but the internal contents are usually similar to or less echogenic than adjacent subcutaneous fat. *Hyperintense on fat-suppressed sequences* - This is **incorrect** - lipomas show **signal dropout** (become dark/hypointense) on fat-suppressed sequences (STIR, fat-sat T1/T2). - Signal suppression on fat-saturated sequences is actually a **diagnostic feature** confirming the fatty nature of the lesion. - Note: Lipomas ARE hyperintense on standard T1-weighted imaging due to fat content. *Hyper-intense on T2-weighted MRI* - Lipomas typically show **intermediate to slightly hyperintense signal** on T2-weighted MRI, but not markedly hyperintense like fluid. - They are less bright than fluid-filled structures or highly vascular lesions on T2-weighted sequences.
Question 1302: In a patient with a tender and rigid abdomen, what is the expected finding on X-ray?
- A. Blood under the diaphragm
- B. Air under the diaphragm (Correct Answer)
- C. Hazy lung fields
- D. Prominent vascular markings
Explanation: ***Air under the diaphragm*** - The presence of **free air** (pneumoperitoneum) beneath the diaphragm on an upright abdominal X-ray is a classic sign of **visceral perforation**. - A **tender and rigid abdomen** (peritoneal signs) indicates irritation of the peritoneum, most commonly due to a ruptured hollow viscus. *Blood under the diaphragm* - While blood can accumulate under the diaphragm (e.g., from **trauma** or a ruptured ectopic pregnancy), it typically manifests as a **hemoperitoneum** on imaging. - Blood is **fluid** and would appear as a fluid collection, not free air, on X-ray. *Hazy lung fields* - **Hazy lung fields** suggest conditions like **pulmonary edema**, pneumonia, or acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). - These findings are primarily associated with pulmonary pathology and are not directly indicative of an acute abdominal emergency like perforation. *Prominent vascular markings* - **Prominent vascular markings** often indicate increased blood flow to the lungs or **pulmonary hypertension**. - This finding is unrelated to acute abdominal pain or peritoneal irritation.
Surgery
1 questionsA patient presents with abdominal pain. On physical examination there was abdominal guarding and tenderness. A plain erect chest X-ray reveals air under diaphragm. Probable diagnosis is
NEET-PG 2015 - Surgery NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1301: A patient presents with abdominal pain. On physical examination there was abdominal guarding and tenderness. A plain erect chest X-ray reveals air under diaphragm. Probable diagnosis is
- A. Perforated abdominal viscus (Correct Answer)
- B. Acute myocardial infarction
- C. Aortic dissection
- D. None of the options
Explanation: ***Perforated abdominal viscus*** - The presence of **abdominal guarding** and **tenderness** indicates peritoneal irritation, while **air under the diaphragm** on an erect chest X-ray (**pneumoperitoneum**) is a classic sign of a perforated hollow abdominal organ. - This combination strongly suggests a **perforated abdominal viscus**, such as a **perforated peptic ulcer** or perforated diverticulitis, leading to the leakage of air and intestinal contents into the peritoneal cavity. *Acute myocardial infarction* - Acute myocardial infarction primarily presents with **chest pain**, radiation to the arm/jaw, and shortness of breath, not typically severe abdominal pain with guarding. - While it can cause some epigastric discomfort, it would not explain the **pneumoperitoneum** seen on the chest X-ray. *Aortic dissection* - Aortic dissection typically causes **sudden, severe tearing chest or back pain**, often radiating to the back. - There is no direct link between aortic dissection and **air under the diaphragm** unless there's a co-existing, unrelated issue, which is not suggested by the primary symptoms. *None of the options* - Given the clear clinical and radiological findings of **pneumoperitoneum** and **peritoneal signs**, a perforated abdominal viscus is the most fitting diagnosis among the choices provided. - This option is incorrect as there is a highly probable diagnosis among the given choices.