Internal Medicine
1 questionsWhat is the most common cause of delirium?
NEET-PG 2015 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1291: What is the most common cause of delirium?
- A. Infection (Correct Answer)
- B. Liver failure
- C. Belladonna poisoning
- D. None of the options
Explanation: ***Infection*** - **Infections**, particularly urinary tract infections (UTIs) or pneumonia, are a very common and often reversible cause of **delirium**, especially in elderly or immunocompromised patients [1]. - The systemic inflammatory response to infection can lead to neuroinflammation and direct effects on brain function, manifesting as acute changes in attention and cognition. *Liver failure* - While **liver failure** can cause **hepatic encephalopathy**, which presents with altered mental status, it typically has a more gradual onset and a different neurochemical profile than acute delirium caused by infection. - Hepatic encephalopathy is characterized by abnormal ammonia metabolism and often includes motor signs like **asterixis**, which are not universally present in delirium from infection. *Belladonna poisoning* - **Belladonna poisoning** (due to **anticholinergic toxicity**) can cause **delirium**, along with a constellation of symptoms like dilated pupils, dry mouth, and tachycardia. - However, it is a specific toxicological cause and not as broad or commonly encountered as infection as a general cause of new-onset delirium in hospitalized or elderly populations. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because **infection** is indeed a very common and recognized cause of delirium [1].
Psychiatry
9 questionsWhich of the following is not typically associated with dementia?
A girl exhibits aggressive behavior such as smashing and throwing objects and verbally abusing hospital staff. However, she shows a different demeanor towards a particular resident doctor. What could be the most likely diagnosis?
What does the term 'jamais vu' refer to?
Which of the following conditions is most commonly associated with self-mutilation?
A patient inventing new words is a feature of?
Increased dopamine levels are associated with which of the following conditions?
Loosening of association is an example of
What is the treatment of choice for acute panic attacks?
Which of the following conditions is NOT typically associated with increased REM latency?
NEET-PG 2015 - Psychiatry NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1291: Which of the following is not typically associated with dementia?
- A. Reduced personal care
- B. Loss of neurons in brain
- C. Alteration of consciousness (Correct Answer)
- D. Forgetfulness
Explanation: ***Alteration of consciousness*** - An **alteration of consciousness** is a hallmark feature of **delirium**, which is an acute confusional state, usually fluctuating. - **Dementia** is primarily characterized by a chronic, progressive decline in cognitive function with **clear consciousness**. *Forgetfulness* - **Forgetfulness**, particularly memory loss impacting daily life, is one of the **earliest and most common symptoms** of dementia. - This symptom progressively worsens, affecting short-term and eventually long-term memory. *Reduced personal care* - As dementia progresses, individuals often experience a decline in their ability to perform **activities of daily living (ADLs)**, including personal care. - This can manifest as forgetting to bathe, difficulty dressing, or neglecting personal hygiene due to cognitive impairment. *Loss of neurons in brain* - **Neurodegeneration**, characterized by the **loss of neurons** and synapses in the brain, is the underlying pathological basis of most types of dementia, such as Alzheimer's disease. - This neuronal loss leads to brain atrophy and the cognitive deficits seen in dementia.
Question 1292: A girl exhibits aggressive behavior such as smashing and throwing objects and verbally abusing hospital staff. However, she shows a different demeanor towards a particular resident doctor. What could be the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Bipolar disorder
- B. Schizoaffective disorder
- C. Antisocial personality
- D. Borderline personality disorder (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Borderline personality disorder*** - Patients with **borderline personality disorder** often exhibit **impulsivity**, intense mood swings, and a pattern of unstable interpersonal relationships, leading to aggressive outbursts. - Their unpredictable behavior and tendency to form intense, unstable attachments or a "favorite person" dynamic are characteristic, as seen in her differing demeanor towards a particular resident doctor. *Bipolar disorder* - While bipolar disorder involves **mood swings**, the behavioral patterns are typically characterized by distinct episodes of **mania** or hypomania and depression, with less emphasis on chronic interpersonal instability and aggression. - The aggression in bipolar disorder is often associated with the manic phase but lacks the consistent pattern of relationship instability and "favorite person" dynamic described. *Schizoaffective disorder* - This disorder involves a combination of **psychotic symptoms** (like delusions or hallucinations) and **mood symptoms** (like depression or mania), which are not explicitly described here as the primary issue. - The aggressive behavior is not primarily driven by psychosis, and the specific interpersonal dynamic with staff is more suggestive of a personality disorder. *Antisocial personality* - **Antisocial personality disorder** is characterized by a pervasive pattern of disregard for and violation of the **rights of others** and may include aggression, but it often involves a lack of empathy and manipulativeness rather than the intense emotional dysregulation and unstable interpersonal patterns seen in borderline personality. - While aggressive behavior is present, the specific description of verbally abusing staff while showing a "different demeanor" towards a particular doctor points away from the typical presentation of antisocial disregard for others.
Question 1293: What does the term 'jamais vu' refer to?
- A. A thought that feels familiar but is actually new
- B. A situation that feels familiar but is actually new
- C. The feeling of strangeness in a familiar situation (Correct Answer)
- D. An illusion where one feels they have heard something before
Explanation: ***The feeling of strangeness in a familiar situation*** - **Jamais vu** describes the opposite of déjà vu; it is the experience of encountering something familiar—a person, place, or word—but feeling that it is **unfamiliar or strange**. - This phenomenon can sometimes be a symptom associated with certain neurological conditions like **temporal lobe epilepsy**. *A thought that feels familiar but is actually new* - This describes a sensation closer to **cryptomnesia** or a "false familiarity," where a new idea is mistakenly believed to be an original thought. - Jamais vu specifically relates to the **perception of external reality** or recognition of known entities, not the familiarity of internal thoughts. *A situation that feels familiar but is actually new* - This is the definition of **déjà vu**, not jamais vu. Déjà vu involves experiencing a new event or situation as if it has happened before. - **Déjà vu** translates to "already seen," directly contrasting with the "never seen" sensation of jamais vu. *An illusion where one feels they have heard something before* - This is a specific type of **déjà vu** known as **déjà entendu** ("already heard"). - Jamais vu involves the *loss of familiarity* with something known, rather than the *false familiarity* with something new.
Question 1294: Which of the following conditions is most commonly associated with self-mutilation?
- A. Catatonic schizophrenia
- B. Paranoid schizophrenia
- C. Borderline personality disorder (Correct Answer)
- D. None of the options
Explanation: **_Borderline personality disorder_** - **Self-mutilation** (e.g., cutting, burning) is a common coping mechanism in **borderline personality disorder (BPD)**, used to relieve intense emotional pain or a sense of emptiness. - This behavior is often associated with the characteristic **emotional dysregulation**, **impulsivity**, and unstable interpersonal relationships seen in BPD. - Self-mutilation is included as a diagnostic criterion in DSM-5 for BPD. *Catatonic schizophrenia* - This subtype of schizophrenia is characterized by profound disturbances in psychomotor behavior, such as **immobility**, **mutism**, **posturing**, or **excessive, purposeless motor activity**. - While individuals with catatonia may injure themselves during periods of extreme agitation or impulsivity, **self-mutilation** is not a primary or defining feature of catatonic schizophrenia. *Paranoid schizophrenia* - This type of schizophrenia is dominated by **delusions** (often persecutory or grandiose) and **auditory hallucinations**. - While individuals with paranoid schizophrenia may engage in self-harm if driven by delusional beliefs or command hallucinations, **self-mutilation** as a primary coping mechanism is not a hallmark characteristic of this disorder. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because **borderline personality disorder** is strongly and specifically associated with self-mutilation.
Question 1295: A patient inventing new words is a feature of?
- A. Schizophrenia (Correct Answer)
- B. Aphasia
- C. Neurotic disorders
- D. Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)
Explanation: ***Schizophrenia*** - The invention of new words, known as **neologisms**, is a characteristic symptom of **thought disorder** in schizophrenia. - These words often have personal meaning to the patient but are unintelligible to others, reflecting disturbed communication. *Neurotic disorders* - These disorders, such as anxiety and phobias, primarily involve **distress and maladaptive coping mechanisms** but do not typically feature neologisms. - **Thought content** may be ruminative or anxious, but not disorganized to the extent of inventing new words. *Aphasia* - Aphasia is a **language disorder caused by brain damage** (e.g., stroke), resulting in difficulty with language production or comprehension. - While it can involve word-finding difficulties or paraphasias (word substitutions), it is distinctly different from the deliberate invention of new, non-existent words seen in psychosis. *Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)* - OCD is characterized by **recurrent, intrusive thoughts (obsessions)** and repetitive behaviors (compulsions). - It does not involve thought disorganization or the creation of neologisms; language remains structured, though often focused on obsessive themes.
Question 1296: Increased dopamine levels are associated with which of the following conditions?
- A. Depression
- B. Mania
- C. Delirium
- D. Schizophrenia (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Schizophrenia*** - The **dopamine hypothesis of schizophrenia** is the most well-established association with increased dopamine levels, particularly in the **mesolimbic pathway**, which contributes to positive symptoms such as **hallucinations** and **delusions**. - Antipsychotic medications, which are **dopamine D2 receptor antagonists**, effectively reduce these positive symptoms by blocking dopamine activity. - This is the **classic and primary answer** when considering increased dopamine levels in psychiatry. *Depression* - Depression is primarily associated with **decreased levels of monoamines**, including **serotonin**, **norepinephrine**, and **dopamine**. - Treatments for depression often aim to increase these neurotransmitter levels, not related to dopamine excess. *Mania* - Mania, a hallmark of **bipolar disorder**, is associated with **increased dopamine activity** along with elevated **norepinephrine** and **serotonin** levels. - While mania does involve dopamine elevation, **schizophrenia** remains the **primary and most established** condition associated with the dopamine hypothesis in psychiatric literature. - The distinction is that schizophrenia's pathophysiology is more centrally and specifically linked to dopamine dysregulation. *Delirium* - Delirium is a state of **acute brain failure** characterized by a fluctuating course and disturbances in attention and cognition. - While neurotransmitter imbalances, including dopamine, **acetylcholine deficiency**, and GABA alterations, can contribute to delirium, it is not primarily defined by increased dopamine as the main pathophysiological mechanism.
Question 1297: Loosening of association is an example of
- A. Concrete thinking
- B. Formal thought disorder (Correct Answer)
- C. Schneider's first symptoms
- D. Perseveration
Explanation: ***Formal thought disorder*** - **Loosening of association** is a classic symptom of **formal thought disorder**, where thoughts become disconnected, fragmented, or illogical. - It reflects a disturbance in the **structure and flow of thought**, leading to disorganized speech. *Schneider's first symptoms* - **Schneider's first-rank symptoms** are specific psychotic experiences (e.g., thought insertion, auditory hallucinations commenting on actions) that are highly suggestive of schizophrenia but do not include loosening of association as a primary symptom. - While sometimes seen in schizophrenia, loosening of association is a broader concept of thought disorganization rather than a first-rank symptom itself. *Perseveration* - **Perseveration** involves the **inappropriate repetition of words, phrases, or ideas**, even when the topic has changed. - While a form of thought disorder, it is distinct from the general disconnectedness seen in loosening of association. *Concrete thinking* - **Concrete thinking** is the **inability to comprehend abstract concepts or metaphors**, interpreting them literally. - This is a disorder of **thought content or style**, but not directly related to the disorganized flow of thought characterized by loosening of association.
Question 1298: What is the treatment of choice for acute panic attacks?
- A. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)
- B. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)
- C. Barbiturates
- D. Benzodiazepines (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Correct: Benzodiazepines*** - Benzodiazepines are the **treatment of choice for acute panic attacks** due to their **rapid onset of action** (within minutes) - They work by enhancing **GABA-A receptor** activity, providing immediate anxiolytic effects - Commonly used agents include **alprazolam, lorazepam, and clonazepam** - While effective acutely, they are not recommended for long-term management due to dependence risk *Incorrect: Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)* - TCAs are effective for **long-term prophylaxis** of panic disorder, not acute attacks - They have a **delayed onset of action** (2-4 weeks), making them unsuitable for immediate relief - Significant **anticholinergic effects** and potential cardiotoxicity limit their use *Incorrect: Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)* - MAOIs can be effective for panic disorder but are reserved for **treatment-resistant cases** - **Delayed onset of action** (several weeks) makes them inappropriate for acute attacks - Require **dietary restrictions** and have risk of hypertensive crisis with tyramine-containing foods *Incorrect: Barbiturates* - Largely **obsolete** in psychiatric practice, replaced by safer benzodiazepines - **Narrow therapeutic index** with high risk of overdose and respiratory depression - Greater potential for dependence and withdrawal complications - No role in modern management of panic attacks
Question 1299: Which of the following conditions is NOT typically associated with increased REM latency?
- A. First night effect
- B. SSRIs
- C. Restless leg syndrome
- D. Narcolepsy (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Narcolepsy*** - **Narcolepsy** is characterized by pathologically **decreased REM latency**, not increased. - Patients typically enter REM sleep within **15 minutes** of sleep onset (normal is 60-90 minutes). - **Sleep-onset REM periods (SOREMPs)** are a diagnostic hallmark of narcolepsy, seen on multiple sleep latency testing (MSLT). - Since narcolepsy is associated with *decreased* REM latency, it is definitively **NOT associated with increased REM latency**, making it the correct answer to this negation question. *First night effect* - The **first-night effect** refers to sleep disruption and increased REM latency during the first night of polysomnography in an unfamiliar environment. - This is a well-documented phenomenon that **increases REM latency** due to environmental stress and arousal. *SSRIs* - **Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)** significantly suppress REM sleep, leading to **increased REM latency** and decreased total REM sleep time. - This effect is mediated by increased serotonin, which inhibits cholinergic neurons involved in REM sleep generation. - SSRIs can increase REM latency by 30-90 minutes beyond normal values. *Restless leg syndrome* - **Restless leg syndrome (RLS)** primarily causes difficulty initiating sleep and sleep fragmentation due to uncomfortable leg sensations. - While RLS disrupts sleep architecture, its effect on REM latency is **variable and inconsistent** - some studies show minimal impact, while chronic sleep deprivation from RLS may actually decrease REM latency during rebound sleep. - However, RLS is not as clearly and consistently dissociated from increased REM latency as narcolepsy is.