Internal Medicine
1 questionsWhat is the most common cause of delirium?
NEET-PG 2015 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1291: What is the most common cause of delirium?
- A. Infection (Correct Answer)
- B. Liver failure
- C. Belladonna poisoning
- D. None of the options
Explanation: ***Infection*** - **Infections**, particularly urinary tract infections (UTIs) or pneumonia, are a very common and often reversible cause of **delirium**, especially in elderly or immunocompromised patients [1]. - The systemic inflammatory response to infection can lead to neuroinflammation and direct effects on brain function, manifesting as acute changes in attention and cognition. *Liver failure* - While **liver failure** can cause **hepatic encephalopathy**, which presents with altered mental status, it typically has a more gradual onset and a different neurochemical profile than acute delirium caused by infection. - Hepatic encephalopathy is characterized by abnormal ammonia metabolism and often includes motor signs like **asterixis**, which are not universally present in delirium from infection. *Belladonna poisoning* - **Belladonna poisoning** (due to **anticholinergic toxicity**) can cause **delirium**, along with a constellation of symptoms like dilated pupils, dry mouth, and tachycardia. - However, it is a specific toxicological cause and not as broad or commonly encountered as infection as a general cause of new-onset delirium in hospitalized or elderly populations. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because **infection** is indeed a very common and recognized cause of delirium [1].
Psychiatry
9 questionsWhat is the primary cause of death in Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome?
The site of lesion in Korsakoff's psychosis is
In which condition is sex reassignment surgery typically performed?
Which of the following is not typically associated with dementia?
A girl exhibits aggressive behavior such as smashing and throwing objects and verbally abusing hospital staff. However, she shows a different demeanor towards a particular resident doctor. What could be the most likely diagnosis?
What does the term 'jamais vu' refer to?
Which of the following conditions is most commonly associated with self-mutilation?
A patient inventing new words is a feature of?
Increased dopamine levels are associated with which of the following conditions?
NEET-PG 2015 - Psychiatry NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1291: What is the primary cause of death in Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome?
- A. Respiratory failure
- B. Liver failure
- C. None of the options (Correct Answer)
- D. Drug toxicity
Explanation: ***None of the options*** - The **primary cause of death** in Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is **renal failure secondary to rhabdomyolysis**, which is not listed among the options. - **Severe muscle rigidity** in NMS leads to massive muscle breakdown (rhabdomyolysis) → release of myoglobin → myoglobinuria → acute tubular necrosis → acute renal failure. - Mortality in NMS ranges from **10-20%**, with renal complications being the leading cause of death. - Other significant causes include **cardiovascular collapse, arrhythmias, DIC**, and **respiratory complications**, but renal failure remains the most common fatal outcome. *Respiratory failure* - While respiratory complications occur in NMS (aspiration pneumonia, respiratory muscle rigidity), this is **not the primary cause of death**. - Respiratory failure can contribute to mortality but is typically **secondary** to other complications or occurs less frequently than renal failure as the direct cause. - It is a serious complication but not the most common fatal outcome. *Liver failure* - **Hepatotoxicity** is not a characteristic feature or primary cause of death in NMS. - Though elevated liver enzymes may occur, liver failure is **not a typical cause of mortality** in NMS. - The pathophysiology centers on **dopamine blockade**, autonomic instability, and muscle breakdown, not hepatic dysfunction. *Drug toxicity* - NMS is an **idiosyncratic reaction** to dopamine antagonists (typical and atypical antipsychotics), not a dose-dependent toxic effect. - Death results from the **physiological complications of the syndrome** (renal failure, cardiovascular collapse, hyperthermia), not from direct drug toxicity or overdose. - The mechanism is related to dopamine receptor blockade and subsequent dysregulation, not toxic poisoning.
Question 1292: The site of lesion in Korsakoff's psychosis is
- A. Frontal lobe
- B. Mammillary body (Correct Answer)
- C. Cingulate gyrus
- D. Corpus striatum
Explanation: ***Mammillary body*** - **Korsakoff's psychosis** is a neurocognitive disorder characterized by severe **memory impairment**, confabulation, and apathy, primarily due to **thiamine deficiency**. - The disease involves damage to several brain areas, most notably the **mammillary bodies** and the dorsal medial nucleus of the thalamus, which are critical for memory formation. *Frontal lobe* - While frontal lobe dysfunction can lead to cognitive deficits, the **primary lesion** in Korsakoff's psychosis is not typically located here. - Damage to the frontal lobe is more commonly associated with executive dysfunction, personality changes, and disinhibition, rather than the profound amnesia seen in Korsakoff's. *Cingulate gyrus* - The cingulate gyrus plays a role in emotion, learning, and memory, but it is **not considered the primary site of lesion** in Korsakoff's psychosis. - Although it can be affected, lesions in the mammillary bodies are more directly linked to the characteristic memory deficits. *Corpus striatum* - The corpus striatum is involved in motor control and habit formation, and its damage is associated with movement disorders like **Parkinson's or Huntington's disease**. - This area is **not the primary site of pathology** in Korsakoff's psychosis, which is fundamentally a memory disorder.
Question 1293: In which condition is sex reassignment surgery typically performed?
- A. Premature ejaculation
- B. Erectile dysfunction
- C. Orgasmic dysfunction
- D. Gender dysphoria (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Gender dysphoria*** - **Sex reassignment surgery** is primarily performed as part of the treatment for **gender dysphoria**, a condition where there is a marked incongruence between an individual's experienced/expressed gender and their assigned sex. - The surgery aims to align the individual's physical appearance with their **gender identity**, alleviating distress and improving quality of life. *Premature ejaculation* - This condition involves consistent or recurrent ejaculation with minimal sexual stimulation before, during, or shortly after penetration and before the person wishes it. - Treatment typically includes behavioral therapies, medication (e.g., SSRIs), and psychological counseling, not surgical intervention. *Erectile dysfunction* - **Erectile dysfunction** is the inability to achieve or maintain an erection firm enough for satisfactory sexual intercourse. - Treatments range from lifestyle changes and oral medications (e.g., PDE5 inhibitors) to vacuum devices, penile injections, and in some cases, penile implants, but not sex reassignment surgery. *Orgasmic dysfunction* - This condition refers to persistent or recurrent delay in, or absence of, orgasm following a normal phase of sexual excitement. - Management often involves psychological counseling, addressing underlying medical conditions, or adjusting medications; it does not involve sex reassignment surgery.
Question 1294: Which of the following is not typically associated with dementia?
- A. Reduced personal care
- B. Loss of neurons in brain
- C. Alteration of consciousness (Correct Answer)
- D. Forgetfulness
Explanation: ***Alteration of consciousness*** - An **alteration of consciousness** is a hallmark feature of **delirium**, which is an acute confusional state, usually fluctuating. - **Dementia** is primarily characterized by a chronic, progressive decline in cognitive function with **clear consciousness**. *Forgetfulness* - **Forgetfulness**, particularly memory loss impacting daily life, is one of the **earliest and most common symptoms** of dementia. - This symptom progressively worsens, affecting short-term and eventually long-term memory. *Reduced personal care* - As dementia progresses, individuals often experience a decline in their ability to perform **activities of daily living (ADLs)**, including personal care. - This can manifest as forgetting to bathe, difficulty dressing, or neglecting personal hygiene due to cognitive impairment. *Loss of neurons in brain* - **Neurodegeneration**, characterized by the **loss of neurons** and synapses in the brain, is the underlying pathological basis of most types of dementia, such as Alzheimer's disease. - This neuronal loss leads to brain atrophy and the cognitive deficits seen in dementia.
Question 1295: A girl exhibits aggressive behavior such as smashing and throwing objects and verbally abusing hospital staff. However, she shows a different demeanor towards a particular resident doctor. What could be the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Bipolar disorder
- B. Schizoaffective disorder
- C. Antisocial personality
- D. Borderline personality disorder (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Borderline personality disorder*** - Patients with **borderline personality disorder** often exhibit **impulsivity**, intense mood swings, and a pattern of unstable interpersonal relationships, leading to aggressive outbursts. - Their unpredictable behavior and tendency to form intense, unstable attachments or a "favorite person" dynamic are characteristic, as seen in her differing demeanor towards a particular resident doctor. *Bipolar disorder* - While bipolar disorder involves **mood swings**, the behavioral patterns are typically characterized by distinct episodes of **mania** or hypomania and depression, with less emphasis on chronic interpersonal instability and aggression. - The aggression in bipolar disorder is often associated with the manic phase but lacks the consistent pattern of relationship instability and "favorite person" dynamic described. *Schizoaffective disorder* - This disorder involves a combination of **psychotic symptoms** (like delusions or hallucinations) and **mood symptoms** (like depression or mania), which are not explicitly described here as the primary issue. - The aggressive behavior is not primarily driven by psychosis, and the specific interpersonal dynamic with staff is more suggestive of a personality disorder. *Antisocial personality* - **Antisocial personality disorder** is characterized by a pervasive pattern of disregard for and violation of the **rights of others** and may include aggression, but it often involves a lack of empathy and manipulativeness rather than the intense emotional dysregulation and unstable interpersonal patterns seen in borderline personality. - While aggressive behavior is present, the specific description of verbally abusing staff while showing a "different demeanor" towards a particular doctor points away from the typical presentation of antisocial disregard for others.
Question 1296: What does the term 'jamais vu' refer to?
- A. A thought that feels familiar but is actually new
- B. A situation that feels familiar but is actually new
- C. The feeling of strangeness in a familiar situation (Correct Answer)
- D. An illusion where one feels they have heard something before
Explanation: ***The feeling of strangeness in a familiar situation*** - **Jamais vu** describes the opposite of déjà vu; it is the experience of encountering something familiar—a person, place, or word—but feeling that it is **unfamiliar or strange**. - This phenomenon can sometimes be a symptom associated with certain neurological conditions like **temporal lobe epilepsy**. *A thought that feels familiar but is actually new* - This describes a sensation closer to **cryptomnesia** or a "false familiarity," where a new idea is mistakenly believed to be an original thought. - Jamais vu specifically relates to the **perception of external reality** or recognition of known entities, not the familiarity of internal thoughts. *A situation that feels familiar but is actually new* - This is the definition of **déjà vu**, not jamais vu. Déjà vu involves experiencing a new event or situation as if it has happened before. - **Déjà vu** translates to "already seen," directly contrasting with the "never seen" sensation of jamais vu. *An illusion where one feels they have heard something before* - This is a specific type of **déjà vu** known as **déjà entendu** ("already heard"). - Jamais vu involves the *loss of familiarity* with something known, rather than the *false familiarity* with something new.
Question 1297: Which of the following conditions is most commonly associated with self-mutilation?
- A. Catatonic schizophrenia
- B. Paranoid schizophrenia
- C. Borderline personality disorder (Correct Answer)
- D. None of the options
Explanation: **_Borderline personality disorder_** - **Self-mutilation** (e.g., cutting, burning) is a common coping mechanism in **borderline personality disorder (BPD)**, used to relieve intense emotional pain or a sense of emptiness. - This behavior is often associated with the characteristic **emotional dysregulation**, **impulsivity**, and unstable interpersonal relationships seen in BPD. - Self-mutilation is included as a diagnostic criterion in DSM-5 for BPD. *Catatonic schizophrenia* - This subtype of schizophrenia is characterized by profound disturbances in psychomotor behavior, such as **immobility**, **mutism**, **posturing**, or **excessive, purposeless motor activity**. - While individuals with catatonia may injure themselves during periods of extreme agitation or impulsivity, **self-mutilation** is not a primary or defining feature of catatonic schizophrenia. *Paranoid schizophrenia* - This type of schizophrenia is dominated by **delusions** (often persecutory or grandiose) and **auditory hallucinations**. - While individuals with paranoid schizophrenia may engage in self-harm if driven by delusional beliefs or command hallucinations, **self-mutilation** as a primary coping mechanism is not a hallmark characteristic of this disorder. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because **borderline personality disorder** is strongly and specifically associated with self-mutilation.
Question 1298: A patient inventing new words is a feature of?
- A. Schizophrenia (Correct Answer)
- B. Aphasia
- C. Neurotic disorders
- D. Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)
Explanation: ***Schizophrenia*** - The invention of new words, known as **neologisms**, is a characteristic symptom of **thought disorder** in schizophrenia. - These words often have personal meaning to the patient but are unintelligible to others, reflecting disturbed communication. *Neurotic disorders* - These disorders, such as anxiety and phobias, primarily involve **distress and maladaptive coping mechanisms** but do not typically feature neologisms. - **Thought content** may be ruminative or anxious, but not disorganized to the extent of inventing new words. *Aphasia* - Aphasia is a **language disorder caused by brain damage** (e.g., stroke), resulting in difficulty with language production or comprehension. - While it can involve word-finding difficulties or paraphasias (word substitutions), it is distinctly different from the deliberate invention of new, non-existent words seen in psychosis. *Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)* - OCD is characterized by **recurrent, intrusive thoughts (obsessions)** and repetitive behaviors (compulsions). - It does not involve thought disorganization or the creation of neologisms; language remains structured, though often focused on obsessive themes.
Question 1299: Increased dopamine levels are associated with which of the following conditions?
- A. Depression
- B. Mania
- C. Delirium
- D. Schizophrenia (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Schizophrenia*** - The **dopamine hypothesis of schizophrenia** is the most well-established association with increased dopamine levels, particularly in the **mesolimbic pathway**, which contributes to positive symptoms such as **hallucinations** and **delusions**. - Antipsychotic medications, which are **dopamine D2 receptor antagonists**, effectively reduce these positive symptoms by blocking dopamine activity. - This is the **classic and primary answer** when considering increased dopamine levels in psychiatry. *Depression* - Depression is primarily associated with **decreased levels of monoamines**, including **serotonin**, **norepinephrine**, and **dopamine**. - Treatments for depression often aim to increase these neurotransmitter levels, not related to dopamine excess. *Mania* - Mania, a hallmark of **bipolar disorder**, is associated with **increased dopamine activity** along with elevated **norepinephrine** and **serotonin** levels. - While mania does involve dopamine elevation, **schizophrenia** remains the **primary and most established** condition associated with the dopamine hypothesis in psychiatric literature. - The distinction is that schizophrenia's pathophysiology is more centrally and specifically linked to dopamine dysregulation. *Delirium* - Delirium is a state of **acute brain failure** characterized by a fluctuating course and disturbances in attention and cognition. - While neurotransmitter imbalances, including dopamine, **acetylcholine deficiency**, and GABA alterations, can contribute to delirium, it is not primarily defined by increased dopamine as the main pathophysiological mechanism.