NEET-PG 2015 Practice Questions

Q: Which microorganism is the most common cause of pyogenic osteomyelitis?

S. aureus. ***Staph aureus*** - **_Staphylococcus aureus_** is the most frequent cause of **pyogenic osteomyelitis** across all age groups and routes of infection. - Its ability to adhere to bone, form biofilms, and produce toxins contributes to its prevalence in bone infections. *Streptococcus spp.* - While various **_Streptococcus_** species can cause infections, they are less common causes of pyogenic osteomyelitis compared to **_Staphylococcus aureus_**. - **Group A _Streptococcus_** can cause severe invasive infections but rarely involves primary bone infection. *Corynebacterium spp.* - **_Corynebacterium_** species, particularly **_Corynebacterium striatum_**, are increasingly recognized as opportunistic pathogens, especially in immunocompromised individuals or those with foreign bodies. - However, they are not the most common cause of osteomyelitis in the general population. *Neisseria gonorrhoeae (gonococcus)* - **_Neisseria gonorrhoeae_** can cause **disseminated gonococcal infection (DGI)**, which may include joint involvement (**septic arthritis**). - While it can lead to bone pain and swelling, it primarily affects joints and is a less common cause of direct **pyogenic osteomyelitis** than **_S. aureus_**.

Q: Which of the following is not a standard treatment option for CIN III?

Wertheim's hysterectomy. ***Wertheim's hysterectomy*** - A **Wertheim's hysterectomy**, also known as a **radical hysterectomy**, involves removal of the uterus, cervix, parametrium, and upper vagina, along with pelvic lymph node dissection. This is typically reserved for **invasive cervical cancer**, not CIN III. - While hysterectomy can be a treatment option for CIN III in specific circumstances (e.g., patient preference, coexisting uterine pathology), a Wertheim's hysterectomy is an **overly aggressive procedure** for precancerous lesions due to its significant morbidity. *LLETZ* - **Large Loop Excision of the Transformation Zone (LLETZ)**, also known as LEEP (Loop Electrosurgical Excision Procedure), is a common and effective outpatient treatment for CIN III. - It involves using a heated wire loop to **excise the abnormal tissue** from the cervix, allowing for histological examination. *Conization* - **Cold knife conization** involves excising a cone-shaped piece of tissue from the cervix using a scalpel. This method is highly effective for CIN III. - It provides **excellent pathological specimens** for evaluation of margins, which is crucial for confirming complete removal of the lesion. *Hysterectomy* - **Hysterectomy** (removal of the uterus, usually simple hysterectomy) can be considered a treatment option for CIN III, particularly in women who have completed childbearing and have other indications for hysterectomy, or when repeated excisional procedures have failed. - While effective, it is a more **invasive procedure** than LLETZ or conization and generally reserved for specific cases where conservative management is not suitable or desired.

Q: Which of the following is not associated with maternal age?

Post maturity. ***Post maturity*** - **Post-maturity** (post-term pregnancy, >42 weeks) does NOT have a consistent or strong association with maternal age in current obstetric literature. - While some older studies suggested associations, modern evidence shows **no significant independent effect of maternal age** on post-term pregnancy rates. - Post-term pregnancy is more related to factors like **first pregnancy**, **prior post-term delivery**, and **fetal sex** (males more common). *Preterm labour* - **Preterm birth is strongly associated with maternal age**, particularly at both extremes: - **Teenage mothers** (<20 years): Increased risk due to biological immaturity and socioeconomic factors - **Advanced maternal age** (≥35 years): Increased risk due to higher rates of maternal complications (hypertension, diabetes) and placental dysfunction - This is well-established in obstetric literature and clinical guidelines. *Aneuploidy* - The risk of **aneuploidy**, particularly **Down syndrome (Trisomy 21)**, **increases dramatically with advancing maternal age**. - At age 35: ~1/350 risk; at age 40: ~1/100 risk; at age 45: ~1/30 risk - Due to age-related decline in oocyte quality causing meiotic errors during egg formation. *Hydatidiform mole* - **Gestational trophoblastic disease** (hydatidiform mole) is strongly associated with **extremes of maternal age**: - **Women >40 years**: 5-10 fold increased risk - **Teenagers**: 1.5-2 fold increased risk - Related to abnormal fertilization events more common at age extremes.

Q: Which one of the following statements is false about Xanthogranulomatous pyelonephritis in children?

Boys are affected more frequently. ***Boys are affected more frequently*** - This statement is **false** for xanthogranulomatous pyelonephritis (XGP) in children. XGP typically shows a **female predominance** in children, similar to adults. - The disease is more common in girls due to the higher incidence of **urinary tract infections** and **urinary obstruction** in females. *It affects the kidney diffusely more frequently than focally* - This statement is **true**. XGP predominantly presents as a **diffuse disease** affecting the entire kidney in approximately **80-90% of cases**. - **Focal XGP** (10-20% of cases) can occur and may mimic a renal tumor, but diffuse involvement is the classic and more common presentation in both adults and children [1]. *Clinical presentation in children is the same as in adults* - This statement is **true**. Children with XGP often present with similar symptoms to adults, including **fever**, **flank pain**, **recurrent urinary tract infections**, and a **palpable abdominal mass** [1]. - **Failure to thrive** and **anemia** are also common in pediatric cases, reflecting the chronic nature of the infection. *Often affects those younger than 8 years of age* - This statement is **true**. XGP, when it occurs in children, often presents in the **younger age group**, typically before 8 years of age. - This demographic observation highlights the importance of considering XGP in young children with persistent urinary tract symptoms and imaging abnormalities. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Kidney, pp. 939-940.

Q: What is the most common cause of pneumonia in early onset sepsis in neonates?

Group B streptococcus. ***Group B streptococcus*** - **Group B Streptococcus (GBS)** is the leading cause of **early-onset sepsis** and pneumonia in neonates, typically acquired during passage through the birth canal. - Maternal GBS colonization is a significant risk factor, and GBS can cause **severe respiratory distress** in affected newborns. *H influenzae* - **_Haemophilus influenzae_** is a more common cause of **late-onset sepsis** or pneumonia in infants and children, rather than early-onset neonatal disease. - While it can cause neonatal infections, it is much less frequent than GBS in the early-onset period. *Coagulase positive staph aureus* - **_Staphylococcus aureus_** is a common cause of **nosocomial infections** or late-onset sepsis in neonates, particularly in ventilated or catheterized infants. - It is not the most common pathogen for community-acquired **early-onset neonatal pneumonia**. *Listeria* - **_Listeria monocytogenes_** can cause severe neonatal sepsis and pneumonia, often associated with maternal consumption of contaminated food. - While it is a significant pathogen, it is less common overall than GBS as a cause of early-onset neonatal pneumonia in most regions.

Q: Surgery for undescended testis is recommended at what age?

12 months. ***12 months*** - **Orchiopexy** for undescended testes is generally recommended around **12 months of age** to optimize fertility and reduce cancer risk. - This timing is within the ideal surgical window of **6-18 months**, balancing the allowance for potential spontaneous descent (which rarely occurs after 6 months) with minimizing germ cell damage. - Most pediatric surgeons prefer operating around **12 months** as it provides optimal outcomes. *6 months* - While **6 months is within the acceptable surgical window** (6-18 months), most surgeons prefer waiting closer to 12 months. - Operating at 6 months is not incorrect, but waiting a few more months allows for logistical planning and ensures any late spontaneous descent has occurred. - The key is to operate **before 18 months** to preserve fertility potential. *24 months* - Delaying surgery until 24 months (2 years) **exceeds the recommended window** and increases the risk of germ cell damage and potential future infertility. - While still beneficial compared to no surgery, the ideal timing for preserving fertility and minimizing malignancy risk has passed. *36 months* - Surgery at 36 months (3 years) is considered a **significant delay** and carries higher risks for long-term complications, including reduced fertility potential and increased risk of testicular cancer. - The benefits of early intervention are largely diminished by this age, though orchiopexy is still indicated to reduce cancer risk and for cosmetic/psychological reasons.

Q: What is the appropriate management for a patient with a carcinoid tumor of the appendix larger than 2 cm?

Right hemicolectomy. ***Right hemicolectomy*** - Carcinoid tumors of the appendix larger than **2 cm** are considered at high risk for **lymph node metastasis** and recurrence. - A **right hemicolectomy** provides adequate margins and allows for lymph node dissection, which is essential for staging and definitive treatment in such cases. *Appendicectomy* - An **appendicectomy** alone is typically sufficient for carcinoid tumors of the appendix that are **less than 1 cm** and localized to the tip. - For larger tumors, appendicectomy carries an unacceptably high risk of **incomplete resection** and metastatic disease. *Appendicectomy + abdominal CT scan* - While an **abdominal CT scan** is useful for assessing local spread and distant metastases, it does not address the need for a more extensive surgical resection for a **large primary tumor**. - A simple **appendicectomy** in this scenario would be inadequate as definitive treatment. *Appendicectomy + 24 hrs urinary HIAA* - **24-hour urinary 5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid (5-HIAA)** is a biomarker used to detect and monitor **carcinoid syndrome**, which occurs in a minority of patients with carcinoid tumors. - Measuring 5-HIAA is primarily for assessing systemic symptoms rather than determining the primary surgical management of the **tumor size**.

Q: Which type of surgical suture is known to cause the most tissue reaction?

Silk. ***Silk*** - Silk is a **natural, braided, non-absorbable suture** that is known to elicit a significant **inflammatory reaction** due to its natural protein composition and braided structure. - While it was historically used for its good handling properties, its high tissue reactivity makes it less ideal for situations where minimal scarring or inflammation is desired. - **Silk causes the most tissue reaction** among commonly used sutures. *Plain Catgut* - Plain catgut is a **natural, absorbable suture** derived from purified collagen of animal intestines, causing a moderate to high tissue reaction. - However, its absorption by enzymatic hydrolysis is relatively rapid, limiting the duration of the inflammatory response compared to non-absorbable natural materials like silk. *Polydiaxonone* - Polydiaxonone (PDS) is a **synthetic, monofilament, absorbable suture** known for causing a relatively **low tissue reaction**. - Its slow absorption profile and monofilament structure contribute to its minimal inflammatory response, making it suitable for tissues requiring prolonged support. *Chromic Catgut* - Chromic catgut is a treated form of plain catgut that has been coated with chromium salts, which prolong its absorption time and reduce its tissue reactivity compared to plain catgut. - Although it is still a natural, absorbable suture, its tissue reaction is **less than both plain catgut and silk**, but greater than synthetic monofilament sutures like PDS.

Q: Claudication due to femoropopliteal incompetence is primarily seen in

Calf. ***Calf*** - **Femoropopliteal incompetence** refers to insufficiency in the superficial femoral and popliteal arteries. Blockage in these arteries typically results in **claudication** symptoms downstream from the obstruction. - The **calf muscles** receive their blood supply via these arteries and are therefore the primary site of pain due to inadequate blood flow during exertion, manifesting as claudication. *Thigh* - Claudication in the **thigh** is usually associated with more proximal arterial obstructions in the **aortoiliac system** or common femoral artery. - While thigh muscles are located upstream from the calf, pain would indicate a blockage higher up than the femoropopliteal segment. *Buttocks* - **Buttock claudication** points to very proximal arterial disease, specifically involving the **internal iliac arteries** or the distal aorta (**Leriche syndrome**). - This is even further upstream than the femoropopliteal arteries and would involve more significant and widespread circulatory compromise. *Feet* - While the **feet** can experience pain due to arterial insufficiency, particularly with severe disease or at rest, isolated foot claudication is less common. - **Claudication** specifically points to muscle ischemia during activity, and the robust musculature of the calf makes it the primary site when femoropopliteal arteries are involved.

Question 1

Which microorganism is the most common cause of pyogenic osteomyelitis?

Accepted Answer

S. aureus

Answer

Streptococcus spp.

Answer

Corynebacterium spp.

Answer

Neisseria gonorrhoeae (gonococcus)

Question 2

Which of the following is not a standard treatment option for CIN III?

Accepted Answer

Wertheim's hysterectomy

Answer

LLETZ

Answer

Conization

Answer

Hysterectomy

Question 3

Which of the following is not associated with maternal age?

Accepted Answer

Post maturity

Answer

Preterm labour

Answer

Aneuploidy

Answer

Hydatidiform mole

Question 4

Greenstick/ Nightstick fractures are seen in -

Accepted Answer

Children

Answer

Elderly

Answer

Common in all age groups

Answer

Young adults

Question 5

Which one of the following statements is false about Xanthogranulomatous pyelonephritis in children?

Accepted Answer

Boys are affected more frequently

Answer

Clinical presentation in children is the same as in adults

Answer

Often affects those younger than 8 years of age

Answer

It affects the kidney diffusely more frequently than focally

Question 6

What is the most common cause of pneumonia in early onset sepsis in neonates?

Accepted Answer

Group B streptococcus

Answer

H influenzae

Answer

Coagulase positive staph aureus

Answer

Listeria

Question 7

Surgery for undescended testis is recommended at what age?

Accepted Answer

12 months

Answer

36 months

Answer

24 months

Answer

6 months

Question 8

What is the appropriate management for a patient with a carcinoid tumor of the appendix larger than 2 cm?

Accepted Answer

Right hemicolectomy

Answer

Appendicectomy

Answer

Appendicectomy + abdominal CT scan

Answer

Appendicectomy + 24 hrs urinary HIAA

Question 9

Which type of surgical suture is known to cause the most tissue reaction?

Accepted Answer

Silk

Answer

Plain Catgut

Answer

Polydiaxonone

Answer

Chromic catgut

Question 10

Claudication due to femoropopliteal incompetence is primarily seen in

Accepted Answer

Calf

Answer

Thigh

Answer

Buttocks

Answer

Feet

NEET-PG 2015

Microbiology

Obstetrics and Gynecology

Orthopaedics

Pathology

Pediatrics

Surgery