Internal Medicine
1 questionsTinel's sign is seen in which of the following conditions?
NEET-PG 2015 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1131: Tinel's sign is seen in which of the following conditions?
- A. Carpal tunnel syndrome (Correct Answer)
- B. Avascular necrosis of scaphoid
- C. Kienbock's Disease
- D. 1st carpometacarpal joint arthritis
Explanation: ***Carpal tunnel syndrome*** - **Tinel's sign** is elicited by lightly tapping over the median nerve at the wrist, which in carpal tunnel syndrome, reproduces tingling or pain in the median nerve distribution [1]. - This sign indicates **nerve compression** or irritation at the carpal tunnel, a hallmark of the condition [1]. *Avascular necrosis of scaphoid* - This condition involves **bone death** due to interrupted blood supply, leading to pain and reduced range of motion, but not nerve irritation. - Diagnosis is typically made with **imaging studies** like MRI, not by neurological signs like Tinel's. *Kienbock's Disease* - This is a form of **avascular necrosis of the lunate bone**, causing wrist pain and stiffness. - It does not involve nerve compression and therefore **Tinel's sign** would not be expected. *1st carpometacarpal joint arthritis* - This condition affects the **joint at the base of the thumb**, causing localized pain and stiffness during gripping or pinching. - Symptoms are related to **joint degeneration**, not nerve impingement, so Tinel's sign is not relevant.
Orthopaedics
6 questionsWhich of the following statements is true regarding a Monteggia fracture?
Fracture neck of femur in 80-year-old male sustained 1 week ago. The treatment of choice is -
Which of the following fractures of the neck of femur are associated with maximal compromise in blood supply ?
Which type of femur fracture has the HIGHEST risk of Avascular Necrosis (AVN)?
In which of the following deformities is the distal interphalangeal joint extended?
4 year old child presented to the clinic with a history of fall on outstretched hand. Radiographs revealed a broken anterior cortex with an intact posterior cortex of the radius with an exaggerated bowing of the radius. The fracture sustained is known as -
NEET-PG 2015 - Orthopaedics NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1131: Which of the following statements is true regarding a Monteggia fracture?
- A. Upper ulnar fracture with dislocated radial head. (Correct Answer)
- B. Upper radial fracture with dislocated ulna.
- C. Lower radial fracture with dislocated ulna.
- D. Lower ulnar fracture with dislocated radius.
Explanation: ***Upper ulnar fracture with dislocated radial head.*** - A Monteggia fracture is classically defined as a fracture of the **proximal or middle third of the ulna** accompanied by an **anterior dislocation of the radial head**. - This injury pattern disrupts the alignment of the **forearm bones** and the **elbow joint**, requiring careful reduction and stabilization. *Upper radial fracture with dislocated ulna.* - This statement incorrectly identifies the fractured bone as the radius and the dislocated bone as the ulna. - The defining characteristic of a Monteggia fracture is the **ulnar fracture** and **radial head dislocation**. *Lower radial fracture with dislocated ulna.* - This describes a different type of injury, such as a **Galeazzi fracture**, which involves a **radial shaft fracture** with dislocation of the **distal radioulnar joint**. - It does not fit the criteria for a Monteggia fracture pattern. *Lower ulnar fracture with dislocated radius.* - This description is not consistent with a Monteggia fracture, which specifically involves the **proximal ulna** and **radial head dislocation**. - A lower ulnar fracture with distal radius dislocation is a distinct injury pattern.
Question 1132: Fracture neck of femur in 80-year-old male sustained 1 week ago. The treatment of choice is -
- A. Hemiarthroplasty (Correct Answer)
- B. Closed reduction and fixation with three cancellous screws
- C. Longitudinal skin traction for 6 weeks
- D. Excision arthroplasty
Explanation: ***Hemiarthroplasty*** - For an 80-year-old with a **fracture of the femoral neck**, especially if sustained a week ago, **hemiarthroplasty** is the preferred treatment to allow early mobilization and prevent complications of prolonged recumbency. - This procedure replaces the **femoral head** and neck, minimizing the risk of **avascular necrosis** and **non-union** which are common complications in older patients with displaced femoral neck fractures. *Excision arthroplasty* - **Excision arthroplasty**, also known as **Girdlestone arthroplasty**, is a salvage procedure typically reserved for cases of severe infection, failed prosthetic implants, or when other options are not viable. - It involves removing the femoral head, creating a **pseudarthrosis**, and results in a shortened, unstable limb, making it unsuitable as a primary treatment. *Closed reduction and fixation with three cancellous screws* - This option is generally considered for **younger patients** with undisplaced or minimally displaced **femoral neck fractures** due to better bone quality and lower risk of avascular necrosis. - In an 80-year-old, the risks of **non-union** and **avascular necrosis** are significantly higher, and the prolonged weight-bearing restrictions associated with this method are detrimental. *Longitudinal skin traction for 6 weeks* - Prolonged **skin traction** is rarely used for femoral neck fractures, especially in the elderly, due to the high risk of complications such as **skin breakdown**, **deep vein thrombosis**, **pneumonia**, and **muscle atrophy**. - It does not provide definitive fixation and is not a definitive treatment for a bony fracture.
Question 1133: Which of the following fractures of the neck of femur are associated with maximal compromise in blood supply ?
- A. Basicervical fracture
- B. Trans cervical fracture
- C. Sub Capital fractures (Correct Answer)
- D. Intertrochanteric fractures
Explanation: ***Sub Capital fractures*** - These fractures occur at the anatomical **neck of the femur**, very close to the femoral head. - Due to their location, they disrupt the main blood supply to the femoral head, primarily from the **retinacular arteries**, leading to a high risk of **avascular necrosis**. *Trans cervical fracture* - This fracture occurs through the **midneck of the femur**, which is still within the intracapsular region. - While it has a significant risk of **ischemia**, the compromise is generally less severe than in subcapital fractures. *Intertrochanteric fractures* - These are **extracapsular fractures** occurring between the greater and lesser trochanters. - They tend to have an **excellent blood supply** and thus a low risk of avascular necrosis, but are associated with more significant blood loss and malunion issues. *Basicervical fracture* - This is an **intracapsular fracture** that occurs at the base of the femoral neck, near the junction with the trochanters. - Although intracapsular, its position is slightly more proximal than subcapital fractures, potentially leaving more of the **retinacular vessels** intact, resulting in a somewhat lower risk of avascular necrosis compared to subcapital fractures.
Question 1134: Which type of femur fracture has the HIGHEST risk of Avascular Necrosis (AVN)?
- A. Subcapital fracture (Correct Answer)
- B. Intertrochanteric fracture
- C. Transcervical fracture
- D. None of the options
Explanation: ***Subcapital fracture*** - This fracture type occurs at the **neck of the femur**, very close to the femoral head's blood supply. - Due to the **intracapsular location**, it severely compromises the **medial and lateral circumflex femoral arteries**, leading to a high risk of **avascular necrosis (AVN)**. *Intertrochanteric fracture* - This fracture is **extracapsular**, occurring below the femoral neck between the greater and lesser trochanters. - While significant, its location generally leaves the **blood supply to the femoral head intact**, thus having a much lower risk of AVN compared to intracapsular fractures. *Transcervical fracture* - This is an **intracapsular fracture** of the femoral neck, but it is located more centrally within the neck. - While it does carry a significant risk of AVN due to disruption of blood supply, the subcapital fracture, being more proximate to the head, typically has an even higher risk due to a greater degree of compromise to the main blood vessels. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because **subcapital fractures** are well-documented for having the highest risk of avascular necrosis among femur fractures due to their specific anatomical location and impact on blood supply.
Question 1135: In which of the following deformities is the distal interphalangeal joint extended?
- A. Boutonniere deformity (Correct Answer)
- B. Swan neck deformity
- C. Claw Hand
- D. Z deformity
Explanation: ***Boutonniere deformity*** - This deformity is characterized by **flexion of the proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joint** and **hyperextension of the distal interphalangeal (DIP) joint**. - It often results from injury to the **central slip of the extensor tendon** at the PIP joint. *Swan neck deformity* - This deformity presents with **hyperextension of the PIP joint** and **flexion of the DIP joint**, which is the opposite of the question's premise. - It is commonly associated with underlying conditions like **rheumatoid arthritis** or **lupus**. *Z deformity* - This typically refers to the **thumb in rheumatoid arthritis**, where the carpometacarpal (CMC) joint is flexed, the metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint is hyperextended, and the interphalangeal (IP) joint is flexed. - It does not primarily describe an extended DIP joint in the context of other fingers. *Claw Hand* - This deformity involves **hyperextension of the MCP joints** and **flexion of the PIP and DIP joints**, particularly of the fourth and fifth fingers. - It is caused by **ulnar nerve palsy**, leading to muscle imbalance.
Question 1136: 4 year old child presented to the clinic with a history of fall on outstretched hand. Radiographs revealed a broken anterior cortex with an intact posterior cortex of the radius with an exaggerated bowing of the radius. The fracture sustained is known as -
- A. Torus Fracture
- B. Greenstick fracture (Correct Answer)
- C. Galleazi Fracture
- D. Monteggia Fracture Dislocation
Explanation: ***Greenstick fracture*** - This fracture type involves a **broken anterior cortex** but an **intact posterior cortex**, leading to an exaggerated bowing of the bone, characteristic of a greenstick fracture. - It occurs predominantly in **children** due to their softer, more flexible bones, which tend to bend rather than fully break when subjected to force like a fall on an outstretched hand. *Torus Fracture* - A torus fracture, or **buckle fracture**, involves compression of the bone leading to a bulging or buckling of the cortex, usually on one side, without a complete break in the bone. - While it occurs in children, it presents as a compression injury and not with a broken cortex and intact posterior cortex with bowing. *Galleazi Fracture* - A Galleazi fracture is a fracture of the **distal radius** with **dislocation of the distal radioulnar joint (DRUJ)**. - This fracture pattern involves two bones and two distinct injuries (fracture and dislocation), which is fundamentally different from the described single-bone incomplete fracture. *Monteggia Fracture Dislocation* - A Monteggia fracture involves a fracture of the **proximal ulna** with **dislocation of the radial head** at the elbow. - This injury also involves two bones and two distinct components (fracture and dislocation) and affects a different anatomical location (ulna and elbow) than described.
Physiology
1 questionsLocking of the knee involves which of the following?
NEET-PG 2015 - Physiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1131: Locking of the knee involves which of the following?
- A. Internal rotation of the tibia with the foot on the ground
- B. Contraction of the popliteus muscle
- C. Internal rotation of the femur with the foot on the ground (Correct Answer)
- D. External rotation of femur with the foot off the ground
Explanation: ***Internal rotation of the femur with the foot on the ground*** - When the foot is on the ground (closed kinematic chain), the **femur rotates internally on the tibia** during the end stages of knee extension. This creates a more stable, "locked" position of the knee. - This **terminal rotation of the femur** increases the contact area and tension in the cruciate ligaments, enhancing joint stability for weight-bearing. *Internal rotation of the tibia with the foot on the ground* - This describes the action of the **popliteus muscle** when "unlocking" the knee from full extension, not the locking mechanism itself. - With the foot on the ground, the tibia is fixed, and internal rotation would typically be a movement for unlocking, not locking. *Contraction of the popliteus muscle* - The **popliteus muscle** is primarily responsible for **unlocking the knee** from full extension, by causing internal rotation of the tibia (or external rotation of the femur). - Its contraction would lead to initial flexion of the knee, releasing the locked position, not establishing it. *External rotation of femur with the foot off the ground* - With the foot off the ground (open kinematic chain), **external rotation of the tibia** occurs during the final degrees of extension to lock the knee, not external rotation of the femur. - The locking mechanism requires specific relative rotation between femur and tibia; external rotation of the femur alone would not achieve the screw-home mechanism necessary for knee locking.
Surgery
2 questionsA 45-year-old female underwent a modified radical mastectomy with axillary clearance for breast cancer. Post-surgery, she is unable to lift her arm above her head. Which nerve is most likely to be injured?
A 22 year old woman comes with a non progressive mass in the left breast since 6 months. There are no associated symptoms. Examination shows a mobile mass not attached to the overlying skin or underlying tissue. The possible diagnosis is
NEET-PG 2015 - Surgery NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1131: A 45-year-old female underwent a modified radical mastectomy with axillary clearance for breast cancer. Post-surgery, she is unable to lift her arm above her head. Which nerve is most likely to be injured?
- A. Intercostobrachial nerve
- B. Nerve to latissimus Dorsi
- C. Lateral Pectoral nerve
- D. Long thoracic nerve of Bell (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Long thoracic nerve of Bell*** - Injury to the **long thoracic nerve** (nerve to the serratus anterior) leads to **paralysis of the serratus anterior muscle**. - This muscle is crucial for **upward rotation and protraction of the scapula**, which is essential for arm elevation above the head and preventing **'winging' of the scapula**. *Intercostobrachial nerve* - Injury to the **intercostobrachial nerve** typically causes **sensory loss** or numbness in the medial upper arm. - It does not primarily affect motor function or the ability to lift the arm. *Nerve to latissimus Dorsi* - The **thoracodorsal nerve** innervates the **latissimus dorsi muscle**, which is involved in adduction, extension, and internal rotation of the arm. - Injury to this nerve would impair these movements but not directly prevent arm elevation above the head. *Lateral Pectoral nerve* - The **lateral pectoral nerve** supplies the **pectoralis major muscle**, primarily its clavicular head. - Injury would weaken adduction and flexion of the arm, but the inability to lift the arm above the head strongly points to serratus anterior dysfunction.
Question 1132: A 22 year old woman comes with a non progressive mass in the left breast since 6 months. There are no associated symptoms. Examination shows a mobile mass not attached to the overlying skin or underlying tissue. The possible diagnosis is
- A. Fibroadenoma (Correct Answer)
- B. Cystasarcoma Phylloides
- C. Scirrhous Carcinoma
- D. Fibroadenosis
Explanation: ***Fibroadenoma*** - This is the most common benign breast tumor in young women, typically presenting as a **mobile, non-tender, firm mass** with no attachment to surrounding tissues. - The history of a **non-progressive mass** over six months in a 22-year-old woman is highly characteristic of a fibroadenoma. *Cystasarcoma Phylloides* - While it can present as a mobile mass, phyllodes tumors tend to grow **rapidly** and can reach a large size, which contradicts the "non-progressive" nature of the mass described. - Phyllodes tumors often have a **leaf-like architectural pattern** histologically and can be benign, borderline, or malignant. *Scirrhous Carcinoma* - This is a type of invasive ductal carcinoma that typically presents as a **hard, irregular, fixed mass** that is often attached to the skin or underlying tissue, unlike the mobile mass described here. - It is common in older women and often associated with **skin dimpling** or nipple retraction. *Fibroadenosis* - This refers to a group of benign breast changes, often presenting with generalized **lumpiness, pain, or tenderness** that fluctuates with the menstrual cycle, rather than a discrete, solitary mass. - It usually presents as **multiple, diffuse nodules** rather than a single, well-defined mass.