NEET-PG 2015 Practice Questions

Q: Laryngeal mask airway [LMA] is contraindicated in?

Pregnant female. ***Pregnant female*** - **Pregnant patients** are at an increased risk of **gastric reflux and aspiration pneumonitis** due to decreased lower esophageal sphincter tone and increased intra-abdominal pressure. - The LMA does not provide a secure airway seal against aspiration, making it contraindicated in cases where **aspiration risk is high**, such as pregnancy or full stomach. *Difficult airways* - The LMA is often considered a **rescue device** in difficult airway algorithms when tracheal intubation fails. - It can be used as a conduit for **fiberoptic intubation** or as a temporary airway while preparing for a definitive airway. *Ocular surgeries* - LMAs are generally suitable for ocular surgeries as they provide a stable airway without the use of a mask, which can obstruct the surgical field. - They tend to cause **less coughing and straining** upon insertion and maintenance compared to endotracheal tubes, which is beneficial in preventing increases in intraocular pressure. *In CPR* - The LMA can be an effective airway device during **cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR)** when endotracheal intubation is not immediately feasible. - It provides a relatively quick and easy way to establish an airway, facilitate ventilation, and reduce the risk of gastric insufflation during chest compressions.

Q: Which of the following conditions is least likely to cause multiple painful ulcers on the tongue?

Sarcoidosis. ***Sarcoidosis*** - While sarcoidosis can affect any organ, **oral involvement is rare** and typically presents as **nodules, plaques, or generalized swelling**, not usually multiple painful ulcers on the tongue. - The lesions, when they occur, are often **painless** and appear as submucosal nodules, red patches, or diffuse swelling. *TB* - Oral tuberculosis can present as **multiple painful ulcers** on the tongue, often with a **granulomatous appearance** mimicking squamous cell carcinoma. - These ulcers are typically **irregular, undermined, and persistent**, often associated with pulmonary TB. *Herpes* - **Herpes simplex virus (HSV)** infection, particularly primary herpetic gingivostomatitis, commonly causes **multiple painful ulcers** on the tongue, gums, and other oral mucosa. - These ulcers begin as vesicles that **rupture to form painful erosions** and are a classic presentation of oral herpes. *Behcet disease* - **Oral aphthous ulcers** are a hallmark feature of Behcet disease, commonly presenting as **multiple, recurrent, painful ulcers** on the tongue and other oral mucosal surfaces. - These ulcers are clinically indistinguishable from common aphthous stomatitis but are more frequent and often associated with genital ulcers, skin lesions, and ocular inflammation.

Q: A 55 years old male with a known history of gallstones presents with chief complaints of severe abdominal pain and elevated levels of serum lipase with periumbilical ecchymosis. All of the following are prognostic criteria to predict the severity of acute pancreatitis except:

Serum GGT. ***Serum GGT*** - **Serum GGT (gamma-glutamyl transpeptidase)** is primarily used to evaluate liver and bile duct function and cholestasis, not as a direct prognostic indicator for acute pancreatitis severity. - While gallstones are mentioned, GGT elevation in this context would suggest the cause of pancreatitis rather than its severity. *Age* - **Age older than 55 years** is a significant prognostic factor in various scoring systems like Ranson's criteria and the APACHE II score, indicating a higher risk of severe disease and complications [1]. - Older patients generally have less physiologic reserve and are more prone to organ failure during severe pancreatitis [1]. *Serum LDH* - **Elevated serum LDH (lactate dehydrogenase)**, specifically above 350 IU/L, is one of Ranson's criteria for assessing the severity of acute pancreatitis within the first 48 hours. - It suggests significant tissue damage and necrosis, which correlates with worse outcomes. *Base deficit* - A **base deficit greater than 4 mEq/L** is an indicator of metabolic acidosis and is included in prognostic scoring systems for acute pancreatitis, such as the modified Glasgow criteria. - It reflects poor tissue perfusion, hypovolemia, and potentially severe systemic inflammation.

Q: A 45 year old lawyer presents with pain in the abdomen more so in the epigastric region that worsens with eating spicy food and is relieved by bending forward. Complications of the above mentioned condition could be all except:

Splenic Vein Thrombosis. ***Splenic Vein Thrombosis*** - The patient's symptoms (epigastric pain worsening with spicy food, relieved by bending forward) are highly suggestive of **pancreatitis**, not peptic ulcer disease [1]. **Splenic vein thrombosis** is a known complication of chronic pancreatitis due to inflammation and compression of the splenic vein [2]. - While pancreatitis can cause significant morbidity, **splenic vein thrombosis** is a specific vascular complication associated with prolonged inflammation of the pancreas, leading to localized portal hypertension and potentially isolated gastric varices. *Perforation* - **Perforation** (specifically of a peptic ulcer or potentially surrounding bowel in severe pancreatitis) is a severe complication that can occur in conditions causing abdominal pain, but it is not the *exception* among the given options for the likely underlying condition indicated by the patient's symptoms (pancreatitis) [3]. - This complication typically leads to **peritonitis**, a medical emergency requiring immediate surgical intervention [3]. *Bleeding* - **Bleeding** (e.g., from a pancreatic pseudocyst rupturing into the gastrointestinal tract or from localized varices secondary to portal hypertension in pancreatitis) is a recognized complication of the patient's likely underlying condition [1]. - Gastrointestinal bleeding can also result from **gastric erosions** or ulcers exacerbated by ongoing inflammation. *Gastric Outlet Obstruction* - **Gastric outlet obstruction** can occur as a complication of severe or chronic pancreatitis, often due to **inflammation**, **fibrosis**, or **pseudocyst formation** compressing the duodenum [1]. - This typically presents with **postprandial vomiting** and early satiety, which can arise in the context of chronic pancreatic inflammation.

Q: What is the number of Barr bodies present in Klinefelter's syndrome?

1. ***1*** - **Klinefelter's syndrome** typically has a 47,XXY karyotype, meaning there are two X chromosomes [1]. - The number of Barr bodies is calculated as **N-1**, where N is the total number of X chromosomes. In this case, 2-1 = **1 Barr body** [1]. - This follows the principle that one X chromosome remains active while additional X chromosomes are inactivated [1]. *0* - **No Barr bodies** are found in individuals with a normal male karyotype (46,XY) or in Turner syndrome (45,XO), neither of which describes Klinefelter's syndrome [1]. - The presence of at least one Barr body indicates the presence of at least two X chromosomes. *2* - **Two Barr bodies** would be indicative of a karyotype with three X chromosomes (e.g., 47,XXX syndrome or Triple X syndrome), which is not Klinefelter's syndrome. - This calculation follows the N-1 rule: 3 X chromosomes - 1 = 2 Barr bodies. *3* - **Three Barr bodies** would correspond to a karyotype with four X chromosomes (e.g., 48,XXXX), which is an even rarer sex chromosome aneuploidy not associated with Klinefelter's syndrome. - The N-1 rule applies: 4 X chromosomes - 1 = 3 Barr bodies. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Genetic Disorders, pp. 173-174.

Q: Which of the following testicular tumours is NOT a germ cell tumour?

Sertoli cell tumour. ***Sertoli cell tumour*** - This is a **sex-cord stromal tumour**, not a germ cell tumour, hence it does not arise from germ cells. - Sertoli cell tumours typically present with abnormal hormone levels, but not the classic germ cell tumour markers. *Choriocarcinoma* - This is a **germ cell tumour** that is aggressive and associated with high levels of **beta-hCG** [1][2]. - It derives from the placental tissue and is characterized by **trophoblastic differentiation** [2]. *Seminoma* - A well-known type of **germ cell tumour**, often presenting as a **homogeneous testicular mass** [1]. - It usually manifests with elevated **LDH** and is associated with a more favorable prognosis compared to non-seminomatous germ cell tumours [1]. *Teratoma* - Teratomas are also classified as **germ cell tumours**, containing differentiated tissues like hair, muscle, and bone [1][2]. - They can be **mature** (benign) or **immature** (malignant), and are typically found in younger patients [2][3]. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Lower Urinary Tract and Male Genital System, pp. 979-980. [2] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Lower Urinary Tract and Male Genital System, pp. 982-983. [3] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Diseases Of The Urinary And Male Genital Tracts, pp. 512-513.

Q: RPLND and Chemotherapy may be used in management of?

Non-seminomatous germ cell tumors of the testis. ***Non-seminomatous germ cell tumors of the testis*** - **Retroperitoneal lymph node dissection (RPLND)** and **chemotherapy** are key components in the management of non-seminomatous germ cell tumors (NSGCTs), especially for metastatic disease or after initial orchidectomy. - The combination therapy addresses both local nodal involvement (RPLND) and widespread micrometastases (chemotherapy), which are common in NSGCTs. *Non-germ cell tumors* - This is a broad category, and while some non-germ cell testicular tumors may require surgery or chemotherapy, **RPLND** is not a standard part of their management in the same way it is for germ cell tumors. - The specific treatment depends on the tumor type (e.g., Leydig cell tumor, Sertoli cell tumor), stage, and histology, and often involves less aggressive approaches. *Seminomatous germ cell tumors* - **Seminomas** are highly radiosensitive and often respond well to **radiation therapy**, particularly for localized disease or retroperitoneal nodal involvement. - While chemotherapy is used for metastatic seminoma, **RPLND** is generally not indicated for seminomas due to their radiosensitivity and different metastatic patterns compared to NSGCTs. *Lymphoma of the testis* - Testicular lymphoma is a type of **non-Hodgkin lymphoma** and is primarily managed with systemic **chemotherapy** (e.g., R-CHOP) and sometimes radiation therapy. - **RPLND** is not a standard treatment modality for testicular lymphoma, as it is a systemic disease requiring systemic treatment, not local surgical excision of retroperitoneal nodes.

Q: The Grayhack shunt is established between which of the following?

Corpora cavernosa and saphenous vein. ***Corpora cavernosa and saphenous vein*** - The **Grayhack shunt** is a proximal **cavernosal-venous shunt** that connects the corpus cavernosum to the **great saphenous vein**. - This procedure surgically manages **refractory priapism** by diverting blood away from the trapped penile cavernosal spaces into the systemic venous circulation. - It is performed when distal and proximal corporeal shunts have failed. *Corpora cavernosa and dorsal vein* - This describes the **Barry shunt**, which connects the corpus cavernosum to the **deep dorsal vein**. - The Al-Ghorab shunt (sometimes confused) is actually a **distal corporo-glanular shunt** involving open excision of glans tissue — not a dorsal vein shunt. *Corpora cavernosa and glans* - This describes **distal cavernosal-glanular shunts** such as the **Winter shunt** (percutaneous needle) or **Ebbehoj shunt** (scalpel incision), which create a communication between the corpus cavernosum and the glans penis. - These are **first-line** surgical options for priapism but are distinct from the proximal Grayhack shunt. *Corpora cavernosa and corpora spongiosa* - This describes the **Quackels shunt**, a **proximal cavernosal-spongiosal shunt** connecting the corpora cavernosa to the corpus spongiosum. - Also used for refractory priapism, but anatomically and surgically distinct from the Grayhack (cavernosal-venous) shunt.

Q: Which of the following statements about undescended testis is true?

Increased risk of malignancy. ***Increased risk of malignancy*** - Undescended testis is associated with a **3 to 14 times increased risk** of testicular malignancy, particularly **seminoma**. - The risk remains elevated even after orchiopexy, though the procedure allows for **easier surveillance and examination**. - This is one of the **most important clinical features** of cryptorchidism and a key reason for early surgical correction. - Even a **corrected cryptorchid testis** maintains higher cancer risk compared to normally descended testes. *Secondary sexual characteristics are universally normal* - In **unilateral cryptorchidism** (90% of cases), the normally descended contralateral testis produces **adequate testosterone** for normal secondary sexual development. - However, in **bilateral cryptorchidism** or if the descended testis is functionally impaired, **testosterone deficiency** can occur, leading to delayed or abnormal sexual development. - Therefore, secondary sexual characteristics are **not universally normal** in all cases of undescended testis. *Hormonal therapy is effective* - Hormonal therapy with **hCG (human chorionic gonadotropin)** or **GnRH (gonadotropin-releasing hormone)** has **limited and inconsistent effectiveness**. - Success rates are generally **low** (10-30%), particularly for truly undescended testes (as opposed to retractile testes). - **Orchiopexy** (surgical correction) remains the **definitive treatment**, ideally performed between **6-18 months of age** to optimize fertility potential. *More common on the right side* - Undescended testis is actually **slightly more common on the left side** (~55-60%) than the right (~40-45%). - **Bilateral cryptorchidism** occurs in approximately 10-20% of cases. - There is no significant right-sided predilection.

Q: What type of respiratory failure is most commonly observed in post-operative patients?

Hypoxemic respiratory failure. ***Hypoxemic respiratory failure*** - **Hypoxemic respiratory failure** (Type I) is characterized by a **PaO2 less than 60 mmHg** with a normal or low PaCO2, often due to **V/Q mismatch** and **shunt**. - Post-operative patients frequently develop **atelectasis**, **pneumonia**, or **pulmonary edema**, leading to impaired gas exchange and reduced oxygenation. - This is the **most commonly observed type** in the immediate post-operative period. *Hypercapnic respiratory failure* - **Hypercapnic respiratory failure** (Type II) is primarily due to **alveolar hypoventilation**, resulting in a **PaCO2 greater than 50 mmHg**. - While it can occur post-operatively, it is less common than hypoxemic failure and is typically seen with significant **sedation**, **neuromuscular blockade**, or severe **obstructive lung disease**. *Mixed respiratory failure* - **Mixed respiratory failure** involves both **hypoxemia** and **hypercapnia**, indicating severe impairment in both oxygenation and ventilation. - Although it can occur in severe post-operative complications, it is not the *most commonly observed initial presentation* compared to isolated hypoxemia. *Perioperative respiratory failure* - **Perioperative respiratory failure** (Type III) occurs specifically in the surgical setting and involves atelectasis from changes in chest wall mechanics. - While this occurs in the post-operative context, the term is less commonly used, and the **underlying mechanism is primarily hypoxemic** in nature.

Question 1

Laryngeal mask airway [LMA] is contraindicated in?

Accepted Answer

Pregnant female

Answer

Ocular surgeries

Answer

Difficult airways

Answer

In CPR

Question 2

Which of the following conditions is least likely to cause multiple painful ulcers on the tongue?

Accepted Answer

Sarcoidosis

Answer

TB

Answer

Herpes

Answer

Behcet disease

Question 3

A 55 years old male with a known history of gallstones presents with chief complaints of severe abdominal pain and elevated levels of serum lipase with periumbilical ecchymosis. All of the following are prognostic criteria to predict the severity of acute pancreatitis except:

Accepted Answer

Serum GGT

Answer

Serum LDH

Answer

Base deficit

Answer

Age

Question 4

A 45 year old lawyer presents with pain in the abdomen more so in the epigastric region that worsens with eating spicy food and is relieved by bending forward. Complications of the above mentioned condition could be all except:

Accepted Answer

Splenic Vein Thrombosis

Answer

Bleeding

Answer

Gastric Outlet Obstruction

Answer

Perforation

Question 5

What is the number of Barr bodies present in Klinefelter's syndrome?

Accepted Answer

1

Answer

0

Answer

2

Answer

3

Question 6

Which of the following testicular tumours is NOT a germ cell tumour?

Accepted Answer

Sertoli cell tumour

Answer

Seminoma

Answer

Teratoma

Answer

Choriocarcinoma

Question 7

RPLND and Chemotherapy may be used in management of?

Accepted Answer

Non-seminomatous germ cell tumors of the testis

Answer

Non-germ cell tumors

Answer

Seminomatous germ cell tumors

Answer

Lymphoma of the testis

Question 8

The Grayhack shunt is established between which of the following?

Accepted Answer

Corpora cavernosa and saphenous vein

Answer

Corpora cavernosa and dorsal vein

Answer

Corpora cavernosa and glans

Answer

Corpora cavernosa and corpora spongiosa

Question 9

Which of the following statements about undescended testis is true?

Accepted Answer

Increased risk of malignancy

Answer

Hormonal therapy is effective

Answer

More common on the right side

Answer

Secondary sexual characteristics are universally normal

Question 10

What type of respiratory failure is most commonly observed in post-operative patients?

Accepted Answer

Hypoxemic respiratory failure

Answer

Hypercapnic respiratory failure

Answer

Mixed respiratory failure

Answer

Perioperative respiratory failure

NEET-PG 2015

Anesthesiology

Internal Medicine

Pathology

Surgery