NEET-PG 2015 Practice Questions

Q: Most common cause of goiter in India is

Diffuse Endemic Goitre. ***Diffuse Endemic Goitre*** - **Iodine deficiency** is the leading cause of goiter globally, particularly in areas with poor iodine intake like some regions in India, leading to **diffuse endemic goiter** - In response to low iodine, the thyroid gland undergoes **hypertrophy** and **hyperplasia**, increasing in size in an attempt to capture more iodine for thyroid hormone synthesis - Despite the **Universal Salt Iodization (USI) program**, iodine deficiency disorders remain a significant public health concern in several Indian states *Papillary Carcinoma* - While it can cause a thyroid mass, **papillary carcinoma** is a malignant neoplastic condition, not the most common cause of generalized goiter - It presents as a **solitary or dominant nodule** and is not typically associated with widespread iodine deficiency - Accounts for only a small percentage of thyroid enlargements *Toxic Multinodular Goitre* - This condition involves multiple autonomously functioning nodules and primarily causes **hyperthyroidism**, not just goiter as a primary common presentation - More common in **elderly patients** and in regions with prior iodine deficiency (Jod-Basedow phenomenon) - Does not represent the most widespread cause of goiter in the general population of India *Hashimoto's Thyroiditis* - Hashimoto's is an **autoimmune disease** causing chronic lymphocytic thyroid inflammation and often hypothyroidism - While it can cause goiter, it typically produces a **firmer, less diffuse enlargement** than that seen with **iodine deficiency** - Not the most common cause of goiter in India, though its prevalence is increasing in urban areas

Q: Gaisbock syndrome is known as:

Spurious Polycythemia. ***Spurious Polycythemia*** - Gaisbock syndrome is characterized by an increase in **red blood cells** due to **dehydration** and is a form of **spurious or relative polycythemia** [1]. - It typically occurs in individuals with **high hematocrit levels** without true pathological erythrocytosis [1]. *High Altitude Erythrocytosis* - This condition is caused by **hypoxia** at high altitudes leading to increased **erythropoietin**, resulting in genuine **erythrocytosis** [2]. - Unlike Gaisbock syndrome, it reflects a true physiological response to reduced oxygen levels [2]. *Polycythemia Vera* - Polycythemia vera is a **myeloproliferative disorder** characterized by increased red blood cell mass due to intrinsic bone marrow changes. - It entails elevated **erythropoietin** levels and features such as **splenomegaly** and other cytogenetic changes, which are not present in Gaisbock syndrome [1][3]. *Primary Familial Polycythemia* - This hereditary condition results in increased red blood cells due to genetic mutations leading to overproduction of erythrocytes. - It is distinct from Gaisbock syndrome as it typically manifests from genetic predisposition rather than environmental factors such as dehydration.

Q: What is the most common cause of death in patients with advanced cancer?

Infection. ***Infection*** - **Immunosuppression** from cancer itself and its treatments (e.g., chemotherapy, radiation) significantly increases susceptibility to infections. - Many patients with advanced cancer die from **sepsis** or opportunistic infections due to their weakened immune systems [1]. *Bleeding* - While bleeding can be a significant complication in advanced cancer (e.g., from tumor erosion, thrombocytopenia), it is less common as a direct cause of death compared to infection. - Life-threatening hemorrhages are typically managed, and other factors often contribute to mortality. *Respiratory failure* - **Respiratory failure** can occur due to **lung metastases**, direct tumor invasion, or complications like pneumonia in advanced cancer patients. - However, the underlying cause of such pneumonia or decline is often infectious or a result of systemic weakness. *Renal failure* - **Renal failure** can be caused by tumor obstruction of the urinary tract, **nephrotoxic chemotherapy**, or paraneoplastic syndromes. - Although serious, it is not the most frequent immediate cause of death in the broad population of advanced cancer patients.

Q: Which of the following is NOT typically associated with Kallmann's syndrome?

Excess stimulation of the HPO axis. ***Excess stimulation of the HPO axis*** - Kallmann's syndrome is characterized by **hypogonadotropic hypogonadism**, meaning there is a deficiency in the secretion of **gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)** [1] from the hypothalamus. - This deficiency leads to *reduced* stimulation of the **hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian (HPO)** axis, not excess stimulation. *Amenorrhea* - **Amenorrhea** (absence of menstruation) is a common presentation in females with Kallmann's syndrome due to the **hypogonadotropic hypogonadism**. - The lack of GnRH results in insufficient **follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)** and **luteinizing hormone (LH)**, preventing ovarian function and regular menstrual cycles. *Hypogonadotropic hypogonadism* - This is a **defining feature** of Kallmann's syndrome, where the **hypothalamus fails to produce enough GnRH**, leading to low levels of FSH and LH from the pituitary. - The low gonadotropin levels subsequently cause the gonads (testes or ovaries) to produce insufficient sex hormones, resulting in **delayed or absent puberty** [1]. *Anosmia* - **Anosmia** (the inability to smell) is a classic and diagnostic feature of Kallmann's syndrome, distinguishing it from other forms of hypogonadotropic hypogonadism. - It occurs because the **GnRH-producing neurons** originate in the olfactory placode and fail to migrate correctly into the hypothalamus during embryonic development, disrupting both smell and GnRH secretion.

Q: Hydrocephalus is best detected antenatally by :

Ultrasonography. ***Ultrasonography*** - **Antenatal ultrasonography** is the primary and most effective method for detecting fetal hydrocephalus. - It allows direct visualization of **ventricular dilation**, the key diagnostic finding in hydrocephalus (lateral ventricles >10mm at atrium level). - USG is **safe, non-invasive**, and can be performed repeatedly without radiation exposure. - It also helps identify associated anomalies and determine the cause of hydrocephalus. *X-ray abdomen* - **X-rays** expose the fetus to **ionizing radiation**, posing risks and violating ALARA (As Low As Reasonably Achievable) principles. - They provide limited detail of **soft tissue structures** like brain ventricles, making them unsuitable for diagnosing hydrocephalus. - X-rays are not used for antenatal diagnosis of fetal brain abnormalities. *Amniocentesis* - **Amniocentesis** is primarily used for **chromosomal analysis** and genetic testing, not for direct visualization of brain anomalies. - While some genetic conditions can lead to hydrocephalus, amniocentesis doesn't directly detect the hydrocephalus itself. - It cannot visualize structural fetal abnormalities. *Clinical examination* - **Antenatal clinical examination** of the mother cannot directly assess fetal brain abnormalities. - It may suggest fetal issues if there is an abnormally large uterine size or polyhydramnios, but it **lacks the specificity and sensitivity** to diagnose hydrocephalus. - Clinical examination alone is inadequate for detecting structural fetal anomalies.

Q: What is the recommended management for a patient with complete placenta previa at 38 weeks gestation without any vaginal bleeding?

Elective caesarean section. ***Elective caesarean section*** - For women with **complete placenta previa** at term (38 weeks), an **elective caesarean section** is the recommended mode of delivery to avoid significant hemorrhage. - Even in the absence of bleeding, the risk of massive hemorrhage during labor with a complete previa is high, necessitating planned surgical delivery. *Observation and monitoring until delivery* - This approach is not safe for complete placenta previa at term due to the high risk of **unpredictable, severe hemorrhage** once labor begins or the cervix dilates. - Active monitoring without planned intervention carries significant maternal and fetal risk. *Conservative management with bed rest* - While bed rest may be used in cases of **placenta previa with bleeding** earlier in gestation to prolong pregnancy, it does not address the fundamental risk of hemorrhage from a complete previa at 38 weeks. - It would not prevent the need for an eventual caesarean section and prolongs potential risks. *Urgent caesarean section due to bleeding risk* - While there is a bleeding risk, this scenario describes a patient at 38 weeks gestation **without any vaginal bleeding**, making it an elective, rather than urgent, situation. - An **urgent caesarean section** is typically reserved for cases where active bleeding or other obstetric emergencies are present.

Q: Which of the following ovarian tumors is most prone to undergo torsion during pregnancy?

Dermoid cyst. ***Dermoid cyst*** - **Dermoid cysts**, or mature cystic teratomas, are the **most common ovarian tumors** to undergo torsion, especially during pregnancy due to their mobility and moderate size. - They are often **unilateral** and benign, containing various mature tissues such as hair, teeth, and sebaceous material. *Serous cystadenoma* - While common, **serous cystadenomas** are generally **less mobile** than dermoid cysts and thus have a lower propensity for torsion. - They are typically filled with **clear, watery fluid** and can grow to be quite large. *Mucinous cystadenoma* - **Mucinous cystadenomas** tend to be **larger** than dermoid cysts and are less prone to torsion due to their size and often fixed position within the pelvis. - They are filled with **thick, gelatinous mucin** and can reach massive sizes, sometimes filling the entire abdominal cavity. *Theca lutein cyst* - **Theca lutein cysts** are usually **bilateral** and occur with conditions like **gestational trophoblastic disease** or **ovarian hyperstimulation**. - While they can be large, their often bilateral nature and underlying pathological conditions make them **less likely to independently twist** as a primary event compared to a freely mobile dermoid cyst.

Q: Lovset manoeuvre is used in delivery of:

Arms. ***Arms*** - The Lovset manoeuvre is specifically designed to facilitate the delivery of the **shoulders and arms** in a **breech presentation** when they are extended upwards. - This technique involves rotating the fetal trunk to bring the anterior shoulder under the pubic symphysis, allowing for the gentle extraction of the posterior arm first, followed by the anterior arm. *Head* - Delivery of the head in a breech presentation is typically managed using **Mauriceau-Smellie-Veit manoeuvre** or Piper forceps, not the Lovset manoeuvre. - The Lovset manoeuvre aims to address difficult arm delivery prior to head delivery. *Breech* - While the Lovset manoeuvre is used *during* a breech delivery, it specifically addresses **arm extraction**, not the overall delivery of the entire breech presentation. - The term "breech" refers to the fetal presentation where the buttocks or feet are presented first. *Foot* - If a foot is presenting first, it is usually a **footling breech presentation**, and the delivery of the foot itself does not typically require the Lovset manoeuvre. - The Lovset manoeuvre is reserved for extended arms, which are distinct from the initial presentation of a foot.

Q: Adson's test is positive in -

Cervical rib. ***Cervical rib*** - **Adson's test** assesses for **thoracic outlet syndrome (TOS)**, which can be caused by a cervical rib compressing the **subclavian artery** or **brachial plexus**. - A positive test occurs when the radial pulse diminishes or disappears upon specific head and arm maneuvers, indicating neurovascular compression. *Cervical spondylosis* - This condition involves **degenerative changes** in the cervical spine, such as bone spurs and disc herniation. - While it can cause neurological symptoms, it typically does not lead to a positive Adson's test, as the compression site is different from that assessed by the test. *Cervical fracture* - A cervical fracture is a **traumatic injury** to the bones of the neck. - Adson's test is not indicated for diagnosing fractures and performing it could exacerbate the injury. *Cervical dislocation* - Cervical dislocation is a severe injury where cervical vertebrae are **displaced from their normal alignment**. - Similar to fractures, Adson's test is not appropriate for diagnosing or evaluating dislocations and carries a risk of further injury.

Q: All of the following are medical uses of erythropoietin except?

Megaloblastic Anemia. ***Megaloblastic Anemia*** - Megaloblastic anemia is caused by **vitamin B12 or folate deficiency**, which impairs DNA synthesis and leads to the production of large, immature red blood cells. - Treatment involves supplementing the deficient vitamin (B12 or folate), as erythropoietin does not address the underlying cause of impaired red blood cell maturation. *Treatment of anaemia associated with renal disease* - **Erythropoietin** is primarily produced by the kidneys, and chronic kidney disease often leads to decreased erythropoietin production, resulting in anemia. - Administering exogenous erythropoietin stimulates red blood cell production, making it a critical treatment for **anemia of chronic kidney disease**. *Chemotherapy induced anemia* - Chemotherapy can suppress bone marrow function, leading to **decreased red blood cell production** and subsequent anemia. - Erythropoietin-stimulating agents can be used to mitigate this side effect by **stimulating erythropoiesis** in the bone marrow. *Specific cases of anemia associated with Crohn's disease.* - Anemia in Crohn's disease can have multiple causes, including iron deficiency from blood loss, malabsorption of vitamins, and **anemia of chronic disease**. - Erythropoietin may be considered in cases where the anemia is primarily due to **inflammation-induced suppression of erythropoiesis** or decreased erythropoietin response, particularly if other treatments are ineffective.

Question 1

Most common cause of goiter in India is

Accepted Answer

Diffuse Endemic Goitre

Answer

Papillary Carcinoma

Answer

Toxic Multinodular Goitre

Answer

Hashimoto's Thyroiditis

Question 2

Gaisbock syndrome is known as:

Accepted Answer

Spurious Polycythemia

Answer

Primary Familial Polycythemia

Answer

High Altitude Erythrocytosis

Answer

Polycythemia Vera

Question 3

What is the most common cause of death in patients with advanced cancer?

Accepted Answer

Infection

Answer

Bleeding

Answer

Respiratory failure

Answer

Renal failure

Question 4

Which of the following is NOT typically associated with Kallmann's syndrome?

Accepted Answer

Excess stimulation of the HPO axis

Answer

Hypogonadotropic hypogonadism

Answer

Anosmia

Answer

Amenorrhea

Question 5

Hydrocephalus is best detected antenatally by :

Accepted Answer

Ultrasonography

Answer

X-ray abdomen

Answer

Amniocentesis

Answer

Clinical examination

Question 6

What is the recommended management for a patient with complete placenta previa at 38 weeks gestation without any vaginal bleeding?

Accepted Answer

Elective caesarean section

Answer

Observation and monitoring until delivery

Answer

Conservative management with bed rest

Answer

Urgent caesarean section due to bleeding risk

Question 7

Which of the following ovarian tumors is most prone to undergo torsion during pregnancy?

Accepted Answer

Dermoid cyst

Answer

Serous cystadenoma

Answer

Mucinous cystadenoma

Answer

Theca lutein cyst

Question 8

Lovset manoeuvre is used in delivery of:

Accepted Answer

Arms

Answer

Head

Answer

Breech

Answer

Foot

Question 9

Adson's test is positive in -

Accepted Answer

Cervical rib

Answer

Cervical spondylosis

Answer

Cervical fracture

Answer

Cervical dislocation

Question 10

All of the following are medical uses of erythropoietin except?

Accepted Answer

Megaloblastic Anemia

Answer

Treatment of anaemia associated with renal disease

Answer

Chemotherapy induced anemia

Answer

Specific cases of anemia associated with Crohn's disease.

NEET-PG 2015

Community Medicine

Internal Medicine

Obstetrics and Gynecology

Orthopaedics

Pharmacology