NEET-PG 2015 - Microbiology Practice Questions

Q: Which of the following is a specific feature of acquired immunity?

Immunological memory. ***Immunological memory*** - A key characteristic of **acquired immunity** is the ability to "remember" previous encounters with specific pathogens. - This memory leads to a more rapid and robust immune response upon subsequent exposure to the same pathogen. - This is the **defining feature** that distinguishes acquired immunity from innate immunity. *Affected by genetic makeup* - While genetic makeup can influence the *efficiency* of the acquired immune system, it is not a **specific feature** that distinguishes it from innate immunity. - **Both innate and acquired immunity** are affected by genetic factors, determining baseline resistance and immune response capability. *No antigen exposure* - **Acquired immunity** is specifically characterized by its *dependence* on antigen exposure to develop specific responses. - The phrase "no antigen exposure" describes how the **innate immune system** functions, providing immediate, non-specific protection without prior contact with a pathogen. *Immediate response* - **Innate immunity** provides an immediate, non-specific response to pathogens. - **Acquired immunity** takes time to develop (days to weeks) after initial antigen exposure, but provides a faster response upon re-exposure due to immunological memory.

Q: Which of the following statements about Chromobacterium violaceum is false?

Normal flora in human. **This question asks for the FALSE statement about *Chromobacterium violaceum*.** ***Normal flora in human*** ✓ (FALSE STATEMENT - This is the correct answer) - *Chromobacterium violaceum* is **not considered normal flora** in humans. It is an environmental bacterium typically found in **soil and water** in tropical and subtropical regions. - Its presence in humans usually signifies a serious **opportunistic infection**, often resulting from exposure to contaminated environments. - Since this statement is FALSE, this is the correct answer. *Gram negative* (TRUE statement) - *Chromobacterium violaceum* is indeed a **Gram-negative bacterium**. This characteristic is crucial for its identification and determining appropriate antibiotic treatment. - Like other Gram-negative bacteria, it possesses an **outer membrane** containing lipopolysaccharide (LPS). *Causes cellulitis* (TRUE statement) - *Chromobacterium violaceum* can cause severe infections in humans, including **cellulitis**, often following skin breaches like cuts or abrasions. - The infections are frequently aggressive and can lead to systemic disease such as **sepsis and abscess formation**. *Produces violet-colored pigment* (TRUE statement) - *Chromobacterium violaceum* is notable for producing **violacein**, a distinctive **violet-colored pigment**. - This pigment production is a key identifying feature on culture media and is associated with some of its pathogenic properties.

Q: Which of the following statements about Corynebacterium diphtheriae is true?

Toxin production is dependent on iron concentration. ***Toxin production is dependent on iron concentration*** - The production of **diphtheria toxin** by *Corynebacterium diphtheriae* is directly regulated by the iron concentration in the environment. - When **iron levels are low**, the diphtheria toxin repressor (DTxR) is inactivated, leading to increased toxin production. *All strains produce toxin* - Not all strains of *Corynebacterium diphtheriae* produce the diphtheria toxin; only those strains that are **lysogenized by a bacteriophage carrying the tox gene** are toxigenic. - Non-toxigenic strains can cause other infections but do not produce the classic diphtheria disease. *The toxin is heat stable* - The **diphtheria toxin** is a **heat-labile** protein, meaning its activity can be destroyed by heat. - Heating diphtheria toxin to 60°C for 30 minutes can inactivate its pathogenic effects. *It inhibits cAMP* - The diphtheria toxin does not inhibit **cAMP**; instead, it acts by **ADP-ribosylating and inactivating elongation factor-2 (EF-2)**, thereby inhibiting protein synthesis in eukaryotic cells. - Inhibition of EF-2 ultimately leads to cell death.

Q: Which of the following statements about Legionella is most accurate?

Aerosol inhalation is a common mode of transmission.. ***Aerosol inhalation is a common mode of transmission.*** - **Legionella pneumophila** is primarily transmitted through **inhalation of aerosolized water droplets** containing the bacteria - Common sources include **cooling towers, air conditioning systems, hot tubs, showerheads**, and decorative fountains - This is the **most defining and clinically important characteristic** of Legionella transmission - Understanding aerosol transmission is crucial for **outbreak control and prevention strategies** *There is no human-to-human transmission.* - This statement is **medically accurate** - Legionella does NOT spread from person to person - However, this is a secondary characteristic compared to the primary transmission mode - The question asks for the **most accurate** statement, making aerosol transmission more definitive *Prolonged carriers are common.* - This is **INCORRECT** - Legionella does NOT cause a chronic carrier state in humans - The bacteria **colonizes environmental water systems and amoebae** (like *Acanthamoeba* and *Naegleria*), not human hosts - Humans are accidental hosts through aerosol exposure *All of the options are true* - This is **INCORRECT** because "Prolonged carriers are common" is false - Only two of the three substantive statements are true

Q: Which immunoglobulin does Protein A of Staphylococcus aureus bind to?

IgG. ***IgG*** - **Protein A** of *Staphylococcus aureus* binds to the **Fc region** of IgG antibodies. - This binding mechanism helps *S. aureus* in **evading opsonization** and phagocytosis by interfering with the host immune response. *IgA* - IgA is primarily found in **mucosal secretions** and its primary role is in mucosal immunity. - Protein A does not preferentially bind to IgA; instead, some bacteria produce specific **IgA proteases** to cleave and inactivate IgA. *IgD* - IgD is found mostly on the surface of **B lymphocytes** and its main role is in B cell activation. - Protein A does not have a significant binding affinity for IgD. *IgE* - IgE is involved in **allergic reactions** and defense against parasites. - Protein A does not bind to IgE; binding to IgE is typically mediated by specific IgE receptors on mast cells and basophils.

Q: Proteus isolated from a patient of UTI will show which biochemical reaction.

Production of phenylpyruvic acid from phenylalanine. ***Production of phenylpyruvic acid from phenylalanine*** - *Proteus* species possess the enzyme **phenylalanine deaminase**, which deaminates phenylalanine to **phenylpyruvic acid**. - This reaction is a **key biochemical test** used to identify *Proteus*, *Providencia*, and *Morganella* species. *Hydrolysis of esculin in bile* - This reaction is characteristic of **Group D streptococci** and **enterococci**, not *Proteus* species. - The organism hydrolyzes **esculin** in the presence of bile, turning the agar black. *Sensitivity to colchicine* - **Colchicine** is an anti-inflammatory drug, not part of standard **biochemical identification tests** for bacteria. - This is not a recognized biochemical reaction used to identify *Proteus* or any bacterial species. *Sensitivity to bacitracin* - **Bacitracin sensitivity** is primarily used to differentiate **Group A streptococci** (e.g., *Streptococcus pyogenes*) from other beta-hemolytic streptococci. - It is an **antibiotic susceptibility test**, not a biochemical reaction characteristic of *Proteus* species.

Q: Which human IgG subclass has the highest serum concentration?

IgG1. ***IgG1*** - **IgG1** constitutes approximately **60-70%** of the total IgG in human serum, making it the most abundant subclass. - Its high concentration reflects its crucial role in **neutralizing toxins**, agglutinating viruses, and opsonizing bacteria for phagocytosis. *IgG2* - **IgG2** makes up about **20-30%** of total IgG and is primarily important in protecting against **polysaccharide-encapsulated bacteria**. - While significant, its serum concentration is notably lower than that of IgG1. *IgG3* - **IgG3** is the least abundant IgG subclass, accounting for only **5-8%** of total IgG, and is characterized by a shorter half-life. - Despite its low concentration, it is highly efficient in activating the **complement system** due to its flexible hinge region. *IgG4* - **IgG4** comprises approximately **3-6%** of total IgG and is unique for its ability to undergo **Fab arm exchange**, leading to bispecific antibodies. - It does not activate complement and is often associated with allergy and protection against parasitic infections, but its concentration is significantly less than IgG1.

Q: Parasitosis of extraocular eye muscles is seen in?

Trichinella infection. ***Trichinella infection*** - **Trichinellosis** (caused by *Trichinella spiralis*) commonly involves the **extraocular muscles** during the muscle encystment phase [1]. - Ocular symptoms like **periorbital edema**, eosinophilic myositis of extraocular muscles, and subconjunctival hemorrhage are characteristic [1]. *Cysticercus infection* - **Cysticercosis**, caused by *Taenia solium* larvae, can affect the eye, predominantly forming **subretinal** or **vitreous cysts** [2]. - While it can involve orbital muscles, involvement of extraocular muscles is less typical and less specific than in trichinellosis [2]. *Amoebic infection* - **Amoebic infections** primarily cause **keratitis** (e.g., *Acanthamoeba*) [3] or can lead to granulomatous encephalitis in immunocompromised individuals. - They do not typically cause direct parasitosis of the extraocular muscles. *Ascariasis infection* - **Ascariasis**, caused by *Ascaris lumbricoides*, is an intestinal nematode and is not known to infect the extraocular muscles. - Ocular manifestations are rare and usually involve migration of adult worms to the orbit or eyelid, not muscle encystment. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Infectious Diseases, pp. 404-405. [2] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Infectious Diseases, pp. 403-404. [3] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Manifestations Of Central And Peripheral Nervous System Disease, pp. 735-736.

Q: HIV envelope is formed by:

Both. ***Both (Correct Answer)*** - The HIV envelope is a **composite structure** derived from both host and viral components - The **lipid bilayer** is acquired from the **host cell membrane** during viral budding - **Viral glycoproteins (gp120 and gp41)** encoded by the viral genome are inserted into this host-derived membrane - This makes the envelope a true hybrid structure essential for viral infectivity *Host cell (Incomplete)* - While the **lipid bilayer** of the envelope comes from the host cell membrane during budding, this alone does not form a functional envelope - The host cell provides the membrane scaffold but lacks the viral glycoproteins necessary for receptor binding and cell entry - Without viral proteins, the envelope cannot mediate infection *Virus (Incomplete)* - The virus encodes essential **envelope glycoproteins** (gp120 for receptor binding, gp41 for membrane fusion) - However, the virus does **not synthesize the lipid bilayer** itself - The viral genome lacks genes for lipid synthesis; the membrane must be acquired from the host *None of the options* - This is incorrect as the HIV envelope clearly requires contributions from **both** the host cell (lipid membrane) and the virus (glycoproteins)

Q: Haptens are immunogenic when they covalently bind to which type of carrier?

Protein carrier. ***Protein carrier*** - Haptens are small molecules that are **antigenic** but not **immunogenic** on their own; they acquire immunogenicity when covalently bound to a larger carrier molecule. - **Proteins** are highly effective carriers because their complex structures and multiple epitopes can induce strong T-cell help, which is crucial for a robust antibody response against the hapten. *Lipid carrier* - While some lipids can be antigenic (e.g., glycolipids), they generally do not serve as effective carriers for haptens to induce a strong adaptive immune response, especially T-cell-dependent responses. - **Lipids** are less likely to be processed and presented by MHC molecules in a way that generates potent helper T-cell activation. *Polysaccharide carrier* - Some polysaccharides can be immunogenic themselves (e.g., bacterial capsular polysaccharides) and can induce T-cell-independent antibody responses. - However, for haptens to become immunogenic and induce a **T-cell-dependent antibody response**, a protein carrier is typically required. *None of the above carrier* - This option is incorrect because haptens do require a carrier to become immunogenic, and specific types of carriers are more effective than others. - The type of carrier chosen significantly impacts the **strength and nature of the immune response** to the hapten.

Question 1

Which of the following is a specific feature of acquired immunity?

Accepted Answer

Immunological memory

Answer

Affected by genetic makeup

Answer

No antigen exposure

Answer

Immediate response

Question 2

Which of the following statements about Chromobacterium violaceum is false?

Accepted Answer

Normal flora in human

Answer

Gram negative

Answer

Causes cellulitis

Answer

Produces violet-colored pigment

Question 3

Which of the following statements about Corynebacterium diphtheriae is true?

Accepted Answer

Toxin production is dependent on iron concentration

Answer

All strains produce toxin

Answer

The toxin is heat stable

Answer

It inhibits cAMP

Question 4

Which of the following statements about Legionella is most accurate?

Accepted Answer

Aerosol inhalation is a common mode of transmission.

Answer

Prolonged carriers are common.

Answer

There is no human-to-human transmission.

Answer

All of the options are true

Question 5

Which immunoglobulin does Protein A of Staphylococcus aureus bind to?

Accepted Answer

IgG

Answer

IgA

Answer

IgD

Answer

IgE

Question 6

Proteus isolated from a patient of UTI will show which biochemical reaction.

Accepted Answer

Production of phenylpyruvic acid from phenylalanine

Answer

Hydrolysis of esculin in bile

Answer

Sensitivity to colchicine

Answer

Sensitivity to bacitracin

Question 7

Which human IgG subclass has the highest serum concentration?

Accepted Answer

IgG1

Answer

IgG2

Answer

IgG3

Answer

IgG4

Question 8

Parasitosis of extraocular eye muscles is seen in?

Accepted Answer

Trichinella infection

Answer

Cysticercus infection

Answer

Amoebic infection

Answer

Ascariasis infection

Question 9

HIV envelope is formed by:

Accepted Answer

Both

Answer

Host cell

Answer

Virus

Answer

None of the options

Question 10

Haptens are immunogenic when they covalently bind to which type of carrier?

Accepted Answer

Protein carrier

Answer

Lipid carrier

Answer

Polysaccharide carrier

Answer

None of the above carrier

NEET-PG 2015 — Microbiology