NEET-PG 2015 - Internal Medicine Practice Questions

Q: In a patient there is dyspnea in upright position which is relieved in supine position, Diagnosis ?

Platypnea. ***Platypnea*** - **Platypnea** is defined as **dyspnea that worsens in an upright position** and improves when lying down. - This condition is often associated with **hepatopulmonary syndrome**, **intracardiac shunts** (e.g., patent foramen ovale), or **pulmonary arteriovenous malformations**, where gravity affects blood flow and gas exchange. *Tachypnea* - **Tachypnea** refers to an **abnormally rapid rate of breathing**. - It describes the *rate* of respiration, not its variation with body position. *Orthopnea* - **Orthopnea** is **dyspnea that occurs when lying flat** and is relieved by sitting or standing up [1]. - It is often seen in conditions like **heart failure**, where fluid redistribution to the lungs is exacerbated in the supine position [2]. *Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea* - **Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (PND)** is characterized by **sudden, severe shortness of breath at night** that awakens the person from sleep [2]. - It is typically caused by **left-sided heart failure** and is relieved by sitting upright or standing, which is the opposite of the described scenario.

Q: What condition is characterized by hypertension and hypokalemia?

Liddle's Syndrome. ***Liddle's Syndrome*** - This syndrome is characterized by **overactivity of the epithelial sodium channel (ENaC)** in the collecting ducts, leading to increased sodium reabsorption and potassium excretion. [1] - The resulting **sodium retention causes hypertension**, while the **potassium excretion leads to hypokalemia**. *Gitelman's Syndrome* - This is an **autosomal recessive kidney disorder** causing a defect in the **thiazide-sensitive NaCl cotransporter** in the distal convoluted tubule. - It presents with **hypokalemia and hypomagnesemia**, but typically with **normal or low blood pressure**, not hypertension. *Bartter Syndrome* - This is a group of **autosomal recessive salt-wasting tubulopathies** affecting the **Na-K-2Cl cotransporter** in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle. - It leads to **hypokalemia, metabolic alkalosis, and normal or low blood pressure**, similar to chronic loop diuretic use. *All of the options* - While all mentioned conditions involve **hypokalemia**, only **Liddle's Syndrome** is consistently associated with **hypertension**. - **Gitelman's and Bartter syndromes** typically present with **normal or low blood pressure**.

Q: Most common cause of Addison's Disease in India is:

Tuberculosis. ***Tuberculosis*** - In India, **tuberculosis** is the most common cause of **Addison's disease** due to the high prevalence of TB infections. - Adrenal involvement in TB can lead to gradual destruction of the adrenal cortex, resulting in **adrenal insufficiency**. *Autoimmune* - **Autoimmune adrenalitis** is the leading cause of Addison's disease in developed Western countries. - It involves the destruction of adrenal cortical cells by the body's own immune system, often associated with other autoimmune conditions. *Malignancy* - **Malignancy**, particularly metastatic cancer to the adrenals, can cause adrenal insufficiency but is a less common primary cause of Addison's disease overall. - While possible, it is not the most prevalent cause in India compared to infectious etiologies. *HIV* - **HIV infection** can lead to adrenal dysfunction, but it's typically through opportunistic infections like CMV, cryptococcosis, or direct HIV effects, rather than being the direct cause of widespread adrenal destruction. - It increases the risk of adrenal insufficiency but is not the most common etiology in India for Addison's disease.

Q: What is the most common arrhythmia in ICU patients?

Atrial fibrillation. ***Atrial fibrillation*** - **Atrial fibrillation (AF)** is the most prevalent arrhythmia in the general population [1], and its incidence is significantly higher in critically ill patients due to various stressors. - Factors like **sepsis**, **hypoxemia**, **electrolyte imbalances**, **myocardial ischemia**, and **inflammatory states** common in the ICU are known triggers for new-onset AF. *Atrial flutter* - While atrial flutter is a common arrhythmia, its overall incidence in the ICU setting is **less frequent than atrial fibrillation**. - It often involves a **re-entrant circuit** in the right atrium [2], leading to characteristic "sawtooth" waves on ECG. *Atrial Tachycardia* - Atrial tachycardia is a form of **supraventricular tachycardia (SVT)** that originates in the atria but is **less common** than AF in the ICU [2]. - It often presents as a **regular, narrow-complex tachycardia** with discrete P waves. *Supraventricular Tachycardia* - This is a broad term encompassing arrhythmias that originate **above the ventricles** [3], including AF, atrial flutter, and atrial tachycardia. - While SVT as a category is common, **atrial fibrillation is the single most frequent specific arrhythmia** within this group in the ICU.

Q: Saddle nose deformity is seen in?

Tertiary Syphilis. ***Tertiary Syphilis*** - **Saddle nose deformity** is a characteristic late manifestation of **tertiary syphilis** due to destructive lesions (gummas) affecting the nasal cartilage and bone [1], [2]. - It results from the **collapse of the nasal bridge**, leading to a flattened appearance [2]. *Primary Syphilis* - Characterized by a **chancre**, a painless ulcer, usually at the site of infection [1]. - This stage does not involve destructive lesions of the nose. *Secondary Syphilis* - Presents with a **widespread rash**, lymphadenopathy, and mucous patches [1]. - While systemic, it typically does not cause structural damage like saddle nose deformity. *Lupus Vulgaris* - This is a **cutaneous form of tuberculosis**, characterized by chronic, destructive skin lesions. - While it can cause facial disfigurement, saddle nose deformity is not a typical feature of lupus vulgaris.

Q: In the context of chest pain evaluation, which is the best way to differentiate between stable angina and NSTEMI?

Cardiac-biomarker. **Cardiac-biomarker** - **Cardiac biomarkers**, particularly **troponin**, are crucial for differentiating between **unstable angina** and **NSTEMI** [1], [2]. In NSTEMI, there is evidence of **myocardial necrosis**, leading to elevated cardiac troponins [2]. - **Stable angina** and **unstable angina** do not involve myocardial necrosis, so troponin levels remain within the normal range [1]. *ECG* - While an **ECG** is essential in the initial assessment of chest pain, it may show **non-specific changes** in both **unstable angina** and **NSTEMI**, such as T-wave inversions or ST-segment depression [2]. - The definitive distinction of **NSTEMI** often relies on **sequential biomarker measurements**, as ECG changes alone may not be sufficient for diagnosis or differentiation from unstable angina [2]. *Trans thoracic Echocardiography* - **Echocardiography** can show **regional wall motion abnormalities** that might suggest ischemia, but these findings are not specific enough to differentiate between **stable angina** and **NSTEMI** immediately. - It is more useful for assessing **ventricular function**, identifying **valvular disease**, or detecting other causes of chest pain, rather than acute differentiation of coronary syndromes. *Multi uptake gated Acquisition scan* - A **MUGA scan** assesses **left ventricular ejection fraction** and wall motion, primarily used in evaluating global cardiac function and monitoring cardiotoxicity from chemotherapy. - It is **not a first-line diagnostic tool** for differentiating between acute coronary syndromes like **stable angina** and **NSTEMI** because it does not directly detect acute myocardial injury.

Q: Hutchinson's Triad is specifically associated with which type of syphilis?

Congenital Syphilis. ***Congenital Syphilis*** - **Hutchinson's Triad** is a classic constellation of symptoms specific to **congenital syphilis**, reflecting the long-term effects of *in utero* infection [1]. - The triad includes **Hutchinson's teeth** (notched incisors), **interstitial keratitis** (corneal inflammation), and **sensorineural hearing loss**. *Tertiary syphilis* - This stage is characterized by **gummas**, **cardiovascular syphilis** (e.g., aortitis), and **neurosyphilis**, but not Hutchinson's triad [1]. - These manifestations develop years after initial infection in adults. *Primary syphilis* - The primary stage is marked by the appearance of a **painless chancre** at the site of infection [1]. - It does not involve the systemic, long-term complications seen in congenital syphilis. *Secondary Syphilis* - This stage typically presents with a **diffuse maculopapular rash**, **lymphadenopathy**, and sometimes **condylomata lata** [1]. - These are acute systemic symptoms, distinct from the developmental abnormalities of Hutchinson's triad.

Q: What is the main contraindication for performing a liver biopsy?

Severe coagulopathy. ***Severe coagulopathy*** - **Severe coagulopathy** is the main contraindication for liver biopsy due to a significantly increased risk of **hemorrhage** [1]. - A **prothrombin time (PT)** or **activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)** significantly prolonged beyond the normal range, or an **INR > 1.5**, should be corrected before the procedure [1]. *Severe thrombocytopenia* - While **thrombocytopenia** (platelet count <50,000/µL) does increase bleeding risk, it is often correctable with a **platelet transfusion** prior to biopsy, making it a relative rather than an absolute contraindication [1]. - The risk of major bleeding is typically lower with isolated thrombocytopenia compared to severe coagulopathy. *Liver hemangioma* - The presence of a **liver hemangioma** at the biopsy site is a contraindication as biopsying it can lead to massive hemorrhage. - However, if the biopsy can be performed safely away from the hemangioma, it is not an absolute contraindication to the procedure itself. *Presence of ascites* - **Ascites** can complicate a liver biopsy by increasing the risk of **peritoneal bleeding** and difficulty in targeting the liver [1]. - However, it is often manageable by draining the ascites or using imaging guidance, making it a relative contraindication rather than an absolute one [1].

Q: Which of the following sites is responsible for the amnestic defect in Wernicke's Korsakoff syndrome:

Thalamus. ***Thalamus*** - Damage to the **medial dorsal nucleus of the thalamus** is a key pathological finding in Wernicke's Korsakoff syndrome, directly contributing to the severe **anterograde and retrograde amnesia** [1]. - The thalamus plays a crucial role in memory consolidation and retrieval, acting as a relay station for information processing between cortical and subcortical structures. *Mammillary body* - While **mammillary body damage** is characteristic of Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome, it is primarily associated with the **acute Wernicke encephalopathy phase** and contributes to the overall amnesia through its connections with the thalamus and hippocampus, rather than being the sole site for the amnestic defect [1]. - The mammillary bodies are part of the **Papez circuit**, which is important for episodic memory, but their lesion alone doesn't fully explain the complete amnestic syndrome. *Hippocampus* - The **hippocampus** is critical for the formation of new memories, and its damage typically causes **anterograde amnesia**, as seen in conditions like temporal lobe epilepsy or anoxia. - While memory is affected, direct **hippocampal lesions are not the primary pathology** in Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome; the memory impairment arises from damage to structures *connected* to the hippocampus, such as the thalamus and mammillary bodies. *Periventricular Grey matter* - The **periventricular grey matter** is involved in various autonomic functions and pain modulation, not directly in memory formation or retrieval. - While lesions in this area can occur in Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome, they are not considered the primary cause of the **amnestic defect**.

Question 1

All of the following are characteristic features of treatment of iron deficiency anemia with oral iron supplements, except which of the following?

Accepted Answer

The treatment should be discontinued immediately once hemoglobin normalizes to prevent side effects of iron

Answer

Bioavailability is enhanced with vitamin C

Answer

The proportion of iron absorbed reduces as hemoglobin improves

Answer

The reticulocyte count should begin to increase within 7-10 days and peak at 2-4 weeks; this suggests good response to treatment

Question 2

In a patient there is dyspnea in upright position which is relieved in supine position, Diagnosis ?

Accepted Answer

Platypnea

Answer

Tachypnea

Answer

Orthopnea

Answer

Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea

Question 3

What condition is characterized by hypertension and hypokalemia?

Accepted Answer

Liddle's Syndrome

Answer

Gitelman's Syndrome

Answer

Bartter Syndrome

Answer

All of the options

Question 4

Most common cause of Addison's Disease in India is:

Accepted Answer

Tuberculosis

Answer

Autoimmune

Answer

HIV

Answer

Malignancy

Question 5

What is the most common arrhythmia in ICU patients?

Accepted Answer

Atrial fibrillation

Answer

Atrial flutter

Answer

Atrial Tachycardia

Answer

Supraventricular Tachycardia

Question 6

Saddle nose deformity is seen in?

Accepted Answer

Tertiary Syphilis

Answer

Primary Syphilis

Answer

Secondary Syphilis

Answer

Lupus Vulgaris

Question 7

In the context of chest pain evaluation, which is the best way to differentiate between stable angina and NSTEMI?

Accepted Answer

Cardiac-biomarker

Answer

ECG

Answer

Trans thoracic Echocardiography

Answer

Multi uptake gated Acquisition scan

Question 8

Hutchinson's Triad is specifically associated with which type of syphilis?

Accepted Answer

Congenital Syphilis

Answer

Tertiary syphilis

Answer

Primary syphilis

Answer

Secondary Syphilis

Question 9

What is the main contraindication for performing a liver biopsy?

Accepted Answer

Severe coagulopathy

Answer

Severe thrombocytopenia

Answer

Liver hemangioma

Answer

Presence of ascites

Question 10

Which of the following sites is responsible for the amnestic defect in Wernicke's Korsakoff syndrome:

Accepted Answer

Thalamus

Answer

Hippocampus

Answer

Mammillary body

Answer

Periventricular Grey matter

NEET-PG 2015 — Internal Medicine