In which condition is Serum Amyloid Associated (SAA) protein most commonly found?
Which of the following is a cause of post-transplantation hypertension? I. Rejection II. Cyclosporine nephrotoxicity III. Renal transplant artery stenosis (RTAS) IV. Recurrent disease in the allograft. Select the correct option.
Which antibody is primarily associated with warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia (AIHA)?
Which of the following findings is diagnostic of iron deficiency anemia?
What does ristocetin testing indicate in von Willebrand disease?
Which of the following does not predispose to leukemia?
Which subtype of Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML) is associated with the best prognosis?
Which of the following is not a feature of Poststreptococcal Glomerulonephritis (PSGN)?
In which condition is Tau protein primarily implicated?
Which of the following is true regarding carcinoid tumor?
NEET-PG 2015 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 21: In which condition is Serum Amyloid Associated (SAA) protein most commonly found?
- A. Alzheimer's disease
- B. Malignant hypertension
- C. Chronic inflammatory states (Correct Answer)
- D. Chronic renal failure
- E. Acute myocardial infarction
Explanation: ***Chronic inflammatory states*** [1][2] - Serum amyloid-associated protein is elevated in response to **chronic inflammation**, such as in rheumatic diseases and infections [1][2]. - It serves as a **biomarker** indicating systemic inflammation and is part of the **acute-phase response** [1]. *Chronic renal failure* - While renal failure can lead to amyloidosis, it is not a direct cause of serum amyloid-associated protein elevation. - **Renal impairment** is more associated with a decrease in clearance rather than production of amyloid proteins. *Alzheimer's disease* - Although amyloid plaques are a hallmark of Alzheimer's, they are related to **A-beta peptide**, not serum amyloid-associated protein. - Alzheimer's pathology primarily involves **neurodegeneration** rather than inflammatory response. *Malignant hypertension* - Malignant hypertension primarily affects the **vascular system** and does not directly involve the production of serum amyloid-associated protein. - It is characterized by end-organ damage, rather than a state of chronic inflammation. *Chronic inflammatory conditions like RA, TB & leprosy, osteomyelitis, ankylosing spondylitis, IBD, bronchiectasis, some tumors* [1][2] - While these conditions can be associated with systemic inflammation, they are too specific and do not comprehensively encompass the broader concept of **chronic inflammatory states**. - This option fails to highlight that serum amyloid-associated protein is a marker for **various chronic inflammatory states** beyond just those listed [1].
Question 22: Which of the following is a cause of post-transplantation hypertension? I. Rejection II. Cyclosporine nephrotoxicity III. Renal transplant artery stenosis (RTAS) IV. Recurrent disease in the allograft. Select the correct option.
- A. None of the above are correct causes.
- B. I, II, and IV are correct causes.
- C. I and III are correct causes.
- D. All of the options are correct causes of post-transplantation hypertension. (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***All of the options are correct causes of post-transplantation hypertension.*** - Post-transplantation hypertension often has a multifactorial etiology, with **rejection**, **cyclosporine nephrotoxicity**, **renal transplant artery stenosis (RTAS)**, and **recurrent disease in the allograft** all being significant contributors. - Each of these conditions can lead to mechanisms that elevate blood pressure, such as **renal ischemia**, activation of the **renin-angiotensin system**, and inflammatory responses affecting renal function. *I, II, and IV are correct causes.* - This option is incorrect because it excludes **renal transplant artery stenosis (RTAS)** (III), which is a well-established cause of secondary hypertension in transplant recipients due to reduced blood flow to the allograft. - **RTAS** activates the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS), leading to **vasoconstriction** and **sodium retention**, contributing to hypertension. *I and III are correct causes.* - This option is incorrect as it omits other crucial causes like **cyclosporine nephrotoxicity** (II) and **recurrent disease in the allograft** (IV), both of which are documented contributors to post-transplantation hypertension. - **Cyclosporine nephrotoxicity** causes afferent arteriolar vasoconstriction and glomerulosclerosis, directly increasing blood pressure. *None of the above are correct causes.* - This option is incorrect because **rejection**, **cyclosporine nephrotoxicity**, **renal transplant artery stenosis (RTAS)**, and **recurrent disease in the allograft** are all recognized and significant causes of post-transplantation hypertension. - Each condition has distinct pathological mechanisms that contribute to **elevated blood pressure** in transplant recipients.
Question 23: Which antibody is primarily associated with warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia (AIHA)?
- A. IgE
- B. IgM
- C. IgG (Correct Answer)
- D. IgD
Explanation: ***IgG*** - **Warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia (AIHA)** is primarily associated with **IgG antibodies**, which mediate hemolysis at body temperature [1]. - IgG antibodies typically bind to red blood cells and lead to their destruction by the **reticuloendothelial system** [1]. *IgM* - Often involved in **cold agglutinin disease**, not warm AIHA, as it primarily reacts at lower temperatures [2]. - Usually results in **hemolysis** in peripheral areas, like the extremities, rather than at normal body temperature [2]. *IgD* - Known primarily as a marker on **B cells**, it plays a minimal role in hemolytic anemia and is not involved in antibody-mediated hemolysis. - Lack of significant **serological presence** in autoimmune hemolytic processes makes it an unlikely candidate. *IgE* - Primarily associated with **allergic reactions** and parasitic infections rather than autoimmune hemolytic conditions [2]. - Does not typically participate in **hemolysis** or bind to red blood cells in AIHA.
Question 24: Which of the following findings is diagnostic of iron deficiency anemia?
- A. Increased TIBC, decreased serum ferritin (Correct Answer)
- B. Decreased TIBC, decreased serum ferritin
- C. Increased TIBC, increased serum ferritin
- D. Decreased TIBC, increased serum ferritin
Explanation: ***Increased TIBC, decreased serum ferritin*** - **Iron deficiency anemia** is characterized by depleted iron stores, leading to a **decreased serum ferritin** level, which is the most sensitive and specific marker for iron deficiency [4]. - In response to low iron stores, the body upregulates iron absorption and transport mechanisms, resulting in an **increased Total Iron Binding Capacity (TIBC)**, as there are more transferrin molecules available to bind iron [1]. *Decreased TIBC, decreased serum ferritin* - While a **decreased serum ferritin** is consistent with iron deficiency, a **decreased TIBC** is more indicative of **anemia of chronic disease** [1], where the body sequesters iron, leading to reduced iron availability for binding. - In **anemia of chronic disease**, both ferritin (an acute phase reactant) and TIBC can be reduced due to the inflammatory state [1], [2]. *Increased TIBC, increased serum ferritin* - An **increased TIBC** is seen in iron deficiency, but an **increased serum ferritin** indicates adequate or even **overloaded iron stores**, which contradicts the diagnosis of iron deficiency anemia. - High ferritin levels can be seen in conditions like **hemochromatosis** (iron overload) or **inflammation**, where ferritin acts as an acute phase reactant [5]. *Decreased TIBC, increased serum ferritin* - This combination is typical of **anemia of chronic disease**, where inflammation causes **increased serum ferritin** (as an acute phase reactant) and a **decreased TIBC** due to reduced production of transferrin [1]. - In this type of anemia, iron is often trapped within macrophages, making it unavailable for erythropoiesis despite seemingly normal or elevated stores [3].
Question 25: What does ristocetin testing indicate in von Willebrand disease?
- A. Normal agglutination
- B. Increased agglutination
- C. No agglutination
- D. Decreased agglutination (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Decreased agglutination*** - In von Willebrand disease, **ristocetin induces less agglutination** due to a deficiency or dysfunction of von Willebrand factor. - This results in **impaired platelet adhesion** [1], crucial for effective hemostasis. *Increased agglutination* - Would suggest an increased platelet interaction, which is **not characteristic of von Willebrand disease**. - It can occur in conditions with enhanced von Willebrand factor, unlike in this case. *No agglutination* - Suggests complete lack of platelet interaction, which is **not typical** in von Willebrand disease. - There is often some level of interaction, albeit reduced, not a total absence of agglutination. *Normal agglutination* - Indicates no abnormalities, which **contradicts the known pathology** of von Willebrand disease. - Patients typically demonstrate decreased levels of agglutination, not normal findings in this test.
Question 26: Which of the following does not predispose to leukemia?
- A. Smoking
- B. Chemical exposure
- C. Alcohol (Correct Answer)
- D. Genetic disorder
Explanation: ***Alcohol*** - Alcohol consumption does not have a well-established association with an increased risk of leukemia compared to other factors. - While excessive alcohol can impact overall health, it is not considered a primary risk factor for developing leukemia. *Chemical exposure* - Certain chemicals, such as **benzene** and **formaldehyde**, are known to be **leukemogenic** and can increase the risk of leukemia. [1] - Occupational exposure to these chemicals has been linked to **acute myeloid leukemia (AML)** and other types of leukemia. [1] *Smoking* - Smoking has been clearly associated with an increased risk of **acute myeloid leukemia (AML)** and other hematologic malignancies. [1] - The toxins in tobacco smoke can cause **DNA damage**, contributing to the development of leukemia. *Genetic disorder* - Certain genetic disorders, like **Down syndrome** and **Fanconi anemia**, are associated with an increased risk of leukemia. - Individuals with these genetic predispositions have a higher likelihood of developing various forms of leukemia.
Question 27: Which subtype of Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML) is associated with the best prognosis?
- A. Acute myelo monocytic leukemia.
- B. Acute monocytic leukemia.
- C. Erythro leukemia
- D. Acute promyeloblastic leukemia (M3) (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Acute promyeloblastic leukemia (M.3)*** [1] - **Best prognosis** in acute myeloid leukemia (AML) is associated with acute promyeloblastic leukemia due to its responsiveness to **all-trans retinoic acid (ATRA)** treatment. [1] - This type often presents with a **prominent coagulopathy**, but successful treatment can lead to **long-term remission**. *Acute monocytic leukemia* - Generally associated with **poor prognosis** and is characterized by a high white blood cell count and organ infiltration. - It lacks the favorable features seen in acute promyeloblastic leukemia, such as effective treatment outcomes. *Erythroleukemia* - Known for having a **poor prognosis** due to its aggressive nature and frequent association with complex chromosomal abnormalities. [1] - Treatment responses are often suboptimal compared to that of acute promyeloblastic leukemia. *Acute myelomonocytic leukemia* - Typically has an **intermediate prognosis** [1] and presents with a mixture of myeloid and monocytic features. - It does not have the same treatment responsiveness and favorable outcomes as seen in acute promyeloblastic leukemia.
Question 28: Which of the following is not a feature of Poststreptococcal Glomerulonephritis (PSGN)?
- A. HTN
- B. Increased urea
- C. Increased creatinine
- D. Normal C3 level (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Normal C3 level*** - In Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis (PSGN), **C3 levels are typically decreased** due to complement consumption during the inflammatory process. [1] - A **normal C3 level** would not be consistent with PSGN, as it suggests no significant complement activation. *Increased urea* - Increased urea can occur due to **impaired renal function**, which is common in PSGN due to glomerular inflammation. [1] - It's a typical finding reflecting the kidneys' inability to excrete waste products properly. *HTN* - Hypertension is frequently associated with PSGN due to **volume overload** and activation of the renin-angiotensin system. [1] [2] - It is a common clinical feature that results from increased fluid retention. *Increased creatinine* - Increased creatinine levels indicate **renal impairment**, which is characteristic of PSGN as kidney function is affected during this condition. [1] - This finding highlights the reduction in glomerular filtration rate (GFR), typical in glomerulonephritis. [2]
Question 29: In which condition is Tau protein primarily implicated?
- A. Lewy body dementia
- B. Picks disease (Correct Answer)
- C. Amyloidosis
- D. Alzheimer's disease
Explanation: Pick's disease - Pick's disease is a **frontotemporal dementia** characterized by aggregates of **hyperphosphorylated tau protein** within neurons, forming **Pick bodies**. - These tau inclusions lead to neuronal degeneration, particularly in the **frontal and temporal lobes**, causing distinct behavioral and language deficits. *Alzheimer's disease* - While **tau protein** is implicated in Alzheimer's disease through the formation of **neurofibrillary tangles**, the primary protein is **beta-amyloid**, which forms plaques [1]. - Alzheimer's disease typically presents with **memory loss** as the predominant initial symptom, unlike Pick's disease [1]. *Lewy body dementia* - Lewy body dementia is primarily characterized by the aggregation of **alpha-synuclein protein** into Lewy bodies within neurons. - While tau pathology can sometimes co-exist, it is not the **primary diagnostic hallmark** of this condition. *Amyloidosis* - Amyloidosis refers to a group of diseases characterized by the abnormal extracellular deposition of **insoluble fibrillar proteins** called amyloids. - The amyloid protein can be derived from various precursors, such as **amyloid light chains** or **serum amyloid A**, which is distinct from tau.
Question 30: Which of the following is true regarding carcinoid tumor?
- A. Associated with serotonin production
- B. Potentially malignant tumor
- C. Neuroendocrine tumor (Correct Answer)
- D. Most common site is lung
Explanation: ### Most common site is lung - Carcinoid tumors are more commonly found in the **gastrointestinal tract**, specifically the appendix and ileum, rather than the lungs [1]. - This statement is false as they can occur in the lungs but are not the most common site overall. ### Potentially malignant tumor - Carcinoid tumors can be classified as **malignant,** especially if they show aggressive behavior or metastasis. - Many carcinoid tumors, particularly those in the gastrointestinal tract, can be **non-functional** and less aggressive [1]. ### Neuroendocrine tumor - Carcinoid tumors are indeed a type of **neuroendocrine tumor**, arising from **neuroendocrine cells**. - This classification emphasizes their origin and potential for secretion of hormones like **serotonin**. ### Associated with serotonin production - Many carcinoid tumors produce **serotonin**, leading to symptoms like **carcinoid syndrome** when they metastasize, particularly to the liver [1]. - This statement is true, indicating their involvement in neuroendocrine secretions.