NEET-PG 2013 - Pathology Practice Questions

Q: Localized Langerhans cell histiocytosis affecting head and neck is?

Eosinophilic granuloma. ***Eosinophilic granuloma*** - This is a localized form of **Langerhans cell histiocytosis** that typically presents in the head and neck region, often affecting areas like the skull and mandible [1]. - Characterized by **bone lesions** and may present with **pain or swelling** in the affected area, making it a prominent form in children and young adults. *Pulmonary langerhans cell histiocytosis* - Primarily affects the **lungs** and is associated with **cough, dyspnea**, and pulmonary nodules, not the head and neck region. - Occurs predominantly in **smokers** and involves interstitial lung disease patterns on imaging studies. *Hand-schuller-christian disease* - This condition is a systemic form of Langerhans cell histiocytosis that affects multiple systems rather than being localized, commonly presenting with **diabetes insipidus** and bone lesions. - It is often associated with **exophthalmos** and may involve lymphadenopathy, affecting older children and adults, not localized head and neck involvement. *Letterer-siwe disease* - This represents the acute, disseminated form of Langerhans cell histiocytosis, affecting infants, and is marked by systemic symptoms like **fever**, **rash**, and **hepatosplenomegaly** [1]. - Typically presents with serious manifestations and not specifically localized in the **head and neck area** as seen in eosinophilic granuloma. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Diseases of White Blood Cells, Lymph Nodes, Spleen, and Thymus, p. 630.

Q: MALT lymphoma is positive for which of the following markers?

CD20. ***CD20*** - MALT lymphoma is a type of **B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma**, and CD20 is a **pan B-cell marker consistently expressed** in MALT lymphomas. - CD20 positivity is **crucial for diagnosis** and is the **primary therapeutic target** for anti-CD20 monoclonal antibody therapy (Rituximab). - In diagnostic practice, **CD20 is the most important B-cell marker** for identifying MALT lymphoma and guiding treatment decisions. *CD19* - CD19 is also a **pan B-cell marker** and is **typically positive in MALT lymphoma** along with CD20. - However, in the context of this question, **CD20 is the preferred answer** because it is the **standard diagnostic marker emphasized in clinical practice** and the **primary therapeutic target**. - Both markers are positive, but CD20 has greater **clinical and therapeutic significance** in MALT lymphoma management. *CD43* - CD43 is primarily a **T-cell and myeloid marker**, but can show **aberrant expression in 40-50% of MALT lymphomas**. - While it may be positive in some cases, it is **not a defining B-cell lineage marker** and is not used as a primary diagnostic criterion for MALT lymphoma. - Its variable expression makes it **less reliable** than consistent B-cell markers like CD20. *CD5* - CD5 is typically associated with **T-cells** and certain B-cell lymphomas, particularly **chronic lymphocytic leukemia/small lymphocytic lymphoma (CLL/SLL)** and **mantle cell lymphoma**. - **MALT lymphoma is characteristically CD5-negative**, which is an important feature for **differentiating it from CD5+ B-cell lymphomas**.

Q: Which HLA antigen is associated with thromboangitis obliterans?

HLA-B5. HLA-B5 - **HLA-B5** (specifically **HLA-B51**) has been associated with an increased risk of **thromboangiitis obliterans (Buerger's disease)** in some populations. - This association suggests a potential genetic predisposition, although the disease's primary risk factor remains **smoking**. *HLA-B27* - **HLA-B27** is strongly associated with **spondyloarthropathies**, such as **ankylosing spondylitis** and **reactive arthritis**, not thromboangiitis obliterans [1]. - Its presence indicates a genetic susceptibility to inflammatory arthritic conditions primarily affecting the spine and sacroiliac joints [1]. *HLA-DR4* - **HLA-DR4** is a well-known genetic marker associated with **rheumatoid arthritis**, particularly severe forms. - It is also linked to other autoimmune diseases like **Type 1 Diabetes**, but not thromboangiitis obliterans. *HLA-DR2* - **HLA-DR2** is associated with an increased risk of several autoimmune diseases, most notably **multiple sclerosis** and **narcolepsy**. - While it plays a role in immune regulation, it is not specifically linked to thromboangiitis obliterans.

Q: Amyloidosis is associated with all of the following conditions except?

Chronic bronchitis. ***Chronic bronchitis*** - Chronic bronchitis is primarily characterized by **inflammation of the airways** and **excess mucus production**, not typically associated with amyloidosis [1]. - Amyloidosis more commonly relates to chronic inflammatory states but does not directly result from the long-term exposure seen in chronic bronchitis [1]. *Tuberculosis* - Tuberculosis can lead to chronic inflammation, which may precipitate **secondary amyloidosis** due to persistent infection [1]. - It often causes systemic effects, including weight loss and fever, which can result in **amyloid deposition** [1]. *Osteomyelitis* - Osteomyelitis, as a chronic bone infection, can trigger an inflammatory response leading to **secondary amyloidosis** [1]. - The ongoing inflammation can result in the accumulation of amyloid proteins in the bone and surrounding tissues [1]. *Bronchiectasis* - Bronchiectasis often results from persistent lung infections leading to chronic inflammation, which can cause **amyloid deposition** [1,3]. - It is associated with recurrent lung infections and can lead to systemic complications, including amyloidosis [1,3]. **References:** [1] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. (Basic Pathology) introduces the student to key general principles of pathology, both as a medical science and as a clinical activity with a vital role in patient care. Part 2 (Disease Mechanisms) provides fundamental knowledge about the cellular and molecular processes involved in diseases, providing the rationale for their treatment. Part 3 (Systematic Pathology) deals in detail with specific diseases, with emphasis on the clinically important aspects., pp. 135-136. [2] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Diseases of the Immune System, pp. 269-270.

Q: According to WHO/ISN classification, which class of lupus nephritis shows a membranous pattern in SLE?

Membranous pattern. ***Membranous pattern*** - This corresponds to **Class V lupus nephritis** in the WHO/ISN classification, characterized by widespread immune complex deposition along the **glomerular basement membrane (GBM)**. - The subepithelial immune deposits lead to GBM thickening, creating the characteristic membranous pattern on light microscopy. - This pattern resembles idiopathic membranous nephropathy but occurs in the context of SLE. *Mesangial pattern involvement* - This refers to **Class I (minimal mesangial LN)** or **Class II (mesangial proliferative LN)**, where immune deposits are primarily confined to the mesangium. - There is minimal or no involvement of the glomerular capillary walls, distinguishing it from the membranous pattern. *Diffuse proliferative pattern* - This is **Class IV lupus nephritis**, the most severe form characterized by widespread **endocapillary and/or extracapillary proliferation** involving ≥50% of glomeruli. - The primary feature is cellular proliferation (mesangial, endocapillary, epithelial crescents), not the subepithelial immune deposits typical of membranous pattern. *Focal proliferative pattern* - This corresponds to **Class III lupus nephritis**, involving **endocapillary or extracapillary proliferation** in <50% of glomeruli. - Distinguished by focal (not diffuse) involvement and active proliferation rather than the membranous pattern seen in Class V.

Q: Anemia with reticulocytosis is seen in -

Hemolysis. ***Hemolysis*** - Reticulocytosis indicates a compensatory response to anemia, often occurring in hemolytic processes where the **bone marrow increases red blood cell production** in response to red blood cell destruction. - Conditions like **sickle cell disease** or **autoimmune hemolytic anemia** lead to hemolysis, further confirming increased reticulocyte count. *Iron deficiency anemia* - Typically presents with a **low reticulocyte count** as the bone marrow does not have sufficient iron to produce new red blood cells. - This condition is characterized by **microcytic, hypochromic** red blood cells due to inadequate iron stores. *Vitamin B12 deficiency* - Often results in a **macrocytic anemia** with a variable reticulocyte count; however, reticulocytosis is generally not seen initially. - This deficiency affects DNA synthesis, leading to ineffective erythropoiesis and the presence of **megaloblastic changes**. *Aplastic anemia* - Characterized by a **decrease in all types of blood cells** (pancytopenia) and typically has a **low reticulocyte count** due to bone marrow failure. - There is insufficient production of red blood cells, hence **reticulocytosis is not observed**.

Q: The MOST COMMON cause of concentric hypertrophy of left ventricle is?

Hypertension. ***Hypertension*** - Chronic **hypertension** is the most common cause of **pressure overload** on the left ventricle, leading to concentric hypertrophy [1]. - In response to the increased afterload, the ventricular wall thickens uniformly inward, reducing the chamber size while maintaining normal wall stress [2]. - Due to its high prevalence (30-40% of adults), hypertension is epidemiologically the most frequent cause of concentric LVH [1]. *Aortic stenosis* - While **aortic stenosis** is the classic pathological cause of **pressure overload** and concentric hypertrophy [2], **hypertension** is more prevalent in the population. - Aortic stenosis causes fixed outflow obstruction, leading to significant pressure work for the left ventricle. - This is the second most common cause but occurs in only 2-5% of elderly patients. *Mitral stenosis* - **Mitral stenosis** primarily causes pressure overload on the **left atrium** and **pulmonary circulation**, not the left ventricle. - It doesn't typically lead to **left ventricular hypertrophy** directly; instead, it causes left atrial enlargement and right ventricular hypertrophy. *Aortic regurgitation* - **Aortic regurgitation** results in **volume overload** of the left ventricle due to blood flowing back into the chamber during diastole. - This typically leads to **eccentric hypertrophy**, where the chamber dilates and the wall thickens proportionally, rather than concentric hypertrophy [2]. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Heart, pp. 560-562. [2] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Heart, p. 536.

Q: Donath-Landsteiner antibody is seen in?

Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria. ***Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria*** - **Donath-Landsteiner antibody** is a **biphasic IgG autoantibody** that binds to red blood cells in the cold and causes **hemolysis** upon warming, characteristic of paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria. - This antibody has **anti-P specificity**, meaning it targets the P antigen on red blood cells, leading to complement activation and cell lysis. *PNH* - **Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria** (PNH) is characterized by a deficiency in **GPI-anchored proteins** on red blood cells, notably **CD55** and **CD59**, making them susceptible to complement-mediated lysis. - It is not associated with the Donath-Landsteiner antibody; rather, it is identified by **flow cytometry** showing absence of CD55/CD59. *Waldenstrom's macroglobulinemia* - This is a **B-cell lymphoma** characterized by the overproduction of **monoclonal IgM antibodies**, leading to hyperviscosity syndrome and other symptoms. - It does not involve Donath-Landsteiner antibodies or cold-induced hemolysis in the same manner as paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria. *Malaria* - **Malaria** is caused by **Plasmodium parasites** that infect and destroy red blood cells, leading to hemolytic anemia and fever. - While it causes **hemolysis**, it is not mediated by the Donath-Landsteiner antibody; the destruction is primarily due to parasitic replication and immune responses against infected cells.

Q: Thalassemia gives protection against ?

Protection against malaria. Protection against malaria - Individuals with thalassemia, particularly thalassemia trait, have some degree of protection against severe forms of malaria, specifically Plasmodium falciparum [1]. - The altered red blood cell structure and reduced hemoglobin content in thalassemia make the red blood cells less hospitable for the parasites, hindering their replication and survival [1]. Protection against filaria - Filaria is caused by parasitic worms (nematodes) transmitted by mosquitoes, leading to lymphatic filariasis (elephantiasis) or onchocerciasis (river blindness). - Thalassemia's primary impact is on red blood cell health and oxygen transport, offering no known protective effect against nematode infections or their associated pathology. Protection against kala-azar - Kala-azar (visceral leishmaniasis) is caused by Leishmania parasites transmitted by sandflies, primarily affecting the reticuloendothelial system (spleen, liver, bone marrow). - There is no established scientific evidence indicating that thalassemia provides protection against Leishmania infections or their clinical manifestations. Protection against leptospirosis - Leptospirosis is a bacterial infection caused by Leptospira bacteria, typically acquired through contact with contaminated water or animal urine. - Thalassemia is a genetic blood disorder; its physiological effects are unrelated to the mechanisms of infection or immunity against bacterial pathogens like Leptospira.

Question 1

Dystrophic calcification is seen in

Accepted Answer

Atheromatous plaque

Answer

Vitamin A intoxication

Answer

Milk alkali syndrome

Answer

Hyperparathyroidism

Question 2

Localized Langerhans cell histiocytosis affecting head and neck is?

Accepted Answer

Eosinophilic granuloma

Answer

Letterer-siwe disease

Answer

Pulmonary Langerhans cell histiocytosis

Answer

Hand-Schuller-Christian disease

Question 3

MALT lymphoma is positive for which of the following markers?

Accepted Answer

CD20

Answer

CD19

Answer

CD43

Answer

CD5

Question 4

Which HLA antigen is associated with thromboangitis obliterans?

Accepted Answer

HLA-B5

Answer

HLA-B27

Answer

HLA-DR4

Answer

HLA-DR2

Question 5

Amyloidosis is associated with all of the following conditions except?

Accepted Answer

Chronic bronchitis

Answer

Osteomyelitis

Answer

Bronchiectasis

Answer

Tuberculosis

Question 6

According to WHO/ISN classification, which class of lupus nephritis shows a membranous pattern in SLE?

Accepted Answer

Membranous pattern

Answer

Diffuse proliferative pattern

Answer

Mesangial pattern involvement

Answer

Focal proliferative pattern

Question 7

Anemia with reticulocytosis is seen in -

Accepted Answer

Hemolysis

Answer

Iron deficiency anemia

Answer

Vitamin B12 deficiency

Answer

Aplastic anemia

Question 8

The MOST COMMON cause of concentric hypertrophy of left ventricle is?

Accepted Answer

Hypertension

Answer

Aortic stenosis

Answer

Mitral stenosis

Answer

Aortic regurgitation

Question 9

Donath-Landsteiner antibody is seen in?

Accepted Answer

Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria

Answer

PNH

Answer

Waldenstrom's macroglobulinemia

Answer

Malaria

Question 10

Thalassemia gives protection against ?

Accepted Answer

Protection against malaria

Answer

Protection against filaria

Answer

Protection against kala-azar

Answer

Protection against leptospirosis

NEET-PG 2013 — Pathology