Internal Medicine
1 questionsWhich of the following is a complication of total parenteral nutrition?
NEET-PG 2013 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 981: Which of the following is a complication of total parenteral nutrition?
- A. Hyperglycemia (Correct Answer)
- B. Hyperkalemia
- C. Hyperglycemia and Hyperkalemia
- D. Hyperosmolar dehydration
Explanation: ***Hyperglycemia*** - Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) solutions contain a high concentration of **dextrose** (glucose), which can lead to elevated blood glucose levels, especially in patients with pre-existing metabolic issues or high infusion rates. - The sudden and continuous infusion of carbohydrates can overwhelm the body's **insulin response**, resulting in hyperglycemia [3]. *Hyperkalemia* - **Hypokalemia**, rather than hyperkalemia, is a more common electrolyte disturbance associated with TPN due to intracellular shifts of potassium with glucose metabolism [2]. - While TPN solutions do contain potassium, hyperkalemia is generally rare unless there is significant renal impairment or excessive potassium supplementation. *Hyperglycemia and Hyperkalemia* - While **hyperglycemia** is a common complication, **hyperkalemia** is not; in fact, hypokalemia is a more frequent concern linked to the significant glucose load in TPN. - This option incorrectly pairs a common complication with one that is rare and generally only seen in specific circumstances. *Hyperosmolar dehydration* - This condition, also known as **hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state (HHS)**, is a severe complication that can arise from uncontrolled hyperglycemia, where high glucose levels lead to osmotic diuresis and severe dehydration [1]. - While hyperglycemia is a precursor to hyperosmolar dehydration, the direct complication of TPN administration itself is the hyperglycemia.
Pathology
1 questionsWhich of the following is a premalignant lesion for carcinoma of the rectum?
NEET-PG 2013 - Pathology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 981: Which of the following is a premalignant lesion for carcinoma of the rectum?
- A. Juvenile polyposis
- B. Adenomatous polyps (Correct Answer)
- C. Familial adenomatous polyposis
- D. Hyperplastic polyps
Explanation: ***Familial polyposis*** - Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP) is characterized by numerous **adenomatous polyps** in the colon and rectum, which have a high risk of progressing to colorectal cancer [1]. - Individuals with FAP are at significant risk for developing **carcinoma rectum** at a young age if the condition is not managed properly [1]. *Juvenile polyp* - Juvenile polyps are generally **benign** and occur in children, with a very low risk of malignancy. - They do not contribute significantly to the risk of **carcinoma rectum** like adenomatous polyps do. *Adenomatous polyp* - While adenomatous polyps are indeed premalignant [1], the term **Familial polyposis** indicates a hereditary condition that specifically has a higher and more defined risk for rectal carcinoma. - Adenomatous polyps can occur sporadically and do not imply a genetic syndrome like familial polyposis. *FAP* - FAP refers specifically to **familial adenomatous polyposis** [1], which is the same concept as familial polyposis but less encompassed in terms of broad assessment in this context. - It is important to note that **familial polyposis** is a broader term that includes conditions like FAP and indicates a significant risk factor for rectal cancer [1]. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Gastrointestinal Tract, pp. 817, 821-822.
Pediatrics
2 questionsWhat is the standard duration used to define apnea of prematurity?
All of the following are features of prematurity in a neonate, except which of the following?
NEET-PG 2013 - Pediatrics NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 981: What is the standard duration used to define apnea of prematurity?
- A. Between 10 and 15 sec
- B. 20 sec (Correct Answer)
- C. More than 30 sec
- D. Less than 10 sec
Explanation: ***20 sec*** - Apnea of prematurity is defined as a cessation of breathing lasting **20 seconds or longer**, or a shorter pause in breathing accompanied by **bradycardia** (heart rate <100 bpm), **cyanosis**, or **pallor**. - This duration is crucial for determining the need for intervention and diagnosis in preterm infants. - The definition is standardized by the **American Academy of Pediatrics (AAP)** and is widely accepted in neonatal care. *Between 10 and 15 sec* - While pauses in breathing of this duration can be observed in preterm infants, they are usually considered **central periodic breathing** and not true apnea of prematurity unless accompanied by desaturation or bradycardia. - These shorter pauses are often considered benign, as significant physiological changes like bradycardia or cyanosis are less likely to occur. *More than 30 sec* - While a breathing cessation of more than 30 seconds certainly qualifies as apnea of prematurity, **20 seconds is the established minimum duration** for diagnosis. - Any apnea lasting longer than 20 seconds signifies a more severe event, indicating a greater risk to the infant. *Less than 10 sec* - Pauses in breathing lasting less than 10 seconds are generally considered **normal physiological variations** in both preterm and full-term infants. - These short pauses do not typically lead to significant oxygen desaturation or bradycardia and are not indicative of apnea of prematurity.
Question 982: All of the following are features of prematurity in a neonate, except which of the following?
- A. Abundant lanugo
- B. Thick ear cartilage (Correct Answer)
- C. Empty scrotum
- D. No creases on sole
Explanation: ***Thick ear cartilage*** - **Thick ear cartilage with well-formed incurving of the pinna** is a feature of a **mature** or **full-term** neonate. - In premature neonates, the ear cartilage is typically **thin, soft, and flexible**, with less developed incurving. *Abundant lanugo* - **Lanugo**, fine soft hair, is typically abundant on the back and shoulders of **premature neonates**. - This hair is often shed by full-term babies before or shortly after birth. *Empty scrotum* - An **empty scrotum** indicates undescended testes, which is common in **premature male neonates**. - Testicular descent typically occurs later in gestation. *No creases on sole* - The absence or scarcity of **creases on the sole of the foot** is characteristic of **premature neonates**. - As gestational age increases, the number and depth of plantar creases increase.
Surgery
6 questionsSteroids are injurious to wound healing when administered during which time frame?
What is the method of reduction for an inguinal hernia?
What is the treatment of choice for squamous cell anal cancer?
Which of the following is the best combination of clinical features of intestinal obstruction?
What is the treatment of choice for medullary carcinoma of the thyroid?
In which condition is the Prehn sign typically positive?
NEET-PG 2013 - Surgery NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 981: Steroids are injurious to wound healing when administered during which time frame?
- A. 2-4 weeks
- B. > 4 weeks
- C. Within 2 weeks (Correct Answer)
- D. On the first day
Explanation: ***Within 2 weeks*** - Steroids administered **within the first 2 weeks** of wound healing significantly impair the **inflammatory and proliferative phases**, crucial for new tissue formation. - This early disruption can lead to **decreased collagen synthesis**, reduced wound contraction, and increased risk of **dehiscence**. *On the first day* - While steroids can affect the very early inflammatory response, the most detrimental impact on overall wound healing processes, particularly **collagen deposition**, occurs over a slightly longer initial period. - The effects of a single dose on day one might be less pronounced than sustained steroid exposure during the more critical **proliferative phase**. *2-4 weeks* - By this stage, the wound is typically in the **remodeling phase**, where collagen fibers are being reorganized and strengthened. - While steroids can still mildly affect healing, their **most damaging effects** on crucial initial processes have usually passed. *> 4 weeks* - Beyond 4 weeks, the wound is generally well into the **remodeling or maturation phase**, and often has achieved significant tensile strength. - Steroid administration at this stage would have **minimal impact** on the overall structural integrity of the healed wound, although chronic steroid use has systemic effects.
Question 982: What is the method of reduction for an inguinal hernia?
- A. Taxis (Correct Answer)
- B. Stopa's technique
- C. Kugel patch
- D. McVay procedure
Explanation: ***Taxis*** - **Taxis** is the manual reduction of a hernia by applying gentle, sustained pressure to gently guide the herniated contents back into the abdominal cavity. - This technique is typically used for **reducible hernias** to prevent complications like strangulation. *Kugel maneuver* - The **Kugel patch** is a device used in the surgical repair of inguinal hernias, not a method of manual reduction. - It involves a **preperitoneal mesh** placed during an open repair to reinforce the weakened abdominal wall. *Macvay procedure* - The **McVay repair** (also known as Cooper's ligament repair) is a surgical technique for inguinal hernias. - It involves suturing the **conjoint tendon** to Cooper's ligament for a strong repair, not a manual reduction. *Stopa's technique* - "Stopa's technique" is not a recognized medical term or a standard method for hernia reduction or repair. - This option appears to be a **distractor** and does not correspond to any established medical procedure for hernias.
Question 983: What is the treatment of choice for squamous cell anal cancer?
- A. Chemoradiotherapy (Correct Answer)
- B. Laser ablation
- C. Abdominoperineal resection
- D. Cisplatin-based chemotherapy
Explanation: ***Chemoradiotherapy*** - **Chemoradiotherapy** is the standard and most effective treatment for squamous cell anal cancer, offering high rates of **tumor control** and **anal sphincter preservation**. - This combined approach uses both **radiation** and **chemotherapy** (typically 5-fluorouracil and mitomycin-C) to enhance tumor cell killing and reduce recurrence. *Laser ablation* - **Laser ablation** is a minimally invasive technique generally reserved for very small, early-stage **superficial tumors** or **intraepithelial neoplasia**, not for invasive squamous cell anal cancer. - It does not address potential **lymph node involvement** or deliver the comprehensive treatment required for most anal cancers. *Abdominoperineal resection* - **Abdominoperineal resection (APR)** involves the surgical removal of the anus, rectum, and part of the sigmoid colon, leading to a permanent **colostomy**. - This is considered a **salvage therapy** for recurrent disease or for patients who have failed chemoradiotherapy, not a primary treatment. *Cisplatin-based chemotherapy* - While **cisplatin** can be used as a component of chemotherapy regimens for some cancers, it is not the primary single-agent or cornerstone chemotherapy for **squamous cell anal cancer**. - The standard chemotherapy regimen typically includes **5-fluorouracil** and **mitomycin-C** in combination with radiation.
Question 984: Which of the following is the best combination of clinical features of intestinal obstruction?
- A. Vomiting
- B. Fluid level in X-ray > 4
- C. Abdominal distension and vomiting (Correct Answer)
- D. Abdominal distension
Explanation: ***Abdominal distension and vomiting*** - This combination represents **two of the cardinal clinical features** of intestinal obstruction from the classic tetrad (pain, vomiting, distension, constipation). - **Abdominal distension** occurs due to accumulation of gas and fluid proximal to the obstruction. - **Vomiting** occurs as the body attempts to expel contents that cannot pass through the blocked intestine. - The **combination** makes this the most specific and complete answer among the given options. *Vomiting* - While vomiting is indeed a prominent clinical feature of intestinal obstruction, it can occur in numerous other conditions (gastroenteritis, metabolic disorders, CNS pathology). - **Isolated vomiting lacks specificity** for diagnosing intestinal obstruction. *Fluid level in X-ray > 4* - This refers to **multiple air-fluid levels** seen on erect abdominal X-ray, which is a **radiologic/diagnostic finding**, not a clinical feature. - Clinical features are symptoms and signs (what the patient experiences or what is observed on examination), whereas X-ray findings are **investigative/imaging findings**. *Abdominal distension* - While abdominal distension is a key clinical feature of intestinal obstruction, it can also occur in other conditions (ascites, pregnancy, obesity, bowel perforation). - **Isolated distension lacks specificity** compared to the combination with vomiting.
Question 985: What is the treatment of choice for medullary carcinoma of the thyroid?
- A. I-131 ablation
- B. Total thyroidectomy (Correct Answer)
- C. Partial thyroidectomy
- D. Hemithyroidectomy
Explanation: ***Total thyroidectomy*** - This is the **treatment of choice for medullary thyroid carcinoma (MTC)** due to its multifocal nature and high propensity for lymph node metastasis - **Complete surgical resection** (often with central compartment neck dissection) provides the best chance for cure by removing all thyroid tissue and involved lymph nodes - MTC arises from **parafollicular C cells** (calcitonin-producing cells) and frequently involves both lobes, making total thyroidectomy essential *Partial thyroidectomy* - This procedure removes only a portion of the thyroid gland, which is **insufficient for MTC** given its tendency for multifocality and bilateral involvement - Leaves residual thyroid tissue that could harbor undetected disease or develop future recurrences - Does not adequately address the aggressive nature of MTC *I-131 ablation* - **Radioactive iodine therapy** is effective for differentiated thyroid cancers (papillary and follicular) that take up iodine - MTC originates from **parafollicular C cells that do not concentrate iodine**, making I-131 ablation completely ineffective - This is a key distinguishing feature of MTC from other thyroid malignancies *Hemithyroidectomy* - This procedure removes only one thyroid lobe, which is **inadequate for MTC** - Risks leaving behind primary tumor in the contralateral lobe or occult bilateral disease - Fails to address the multifocal nature of MTC, particularly in hereditary cases (MEN 2A, MEN 2B, familial MTC)
Question 986: In which condition is the Prehn sign typically positive?
- A. Acute epididymitis (Correct Answer)
- B. Chronic epididymitis
- C. Testicular torsion
- D. Acute scrotal pain due to other causes
Explanation: ***Acute epididymitis*** - **Prehn sign** is positive when lifting the scrotal sac alleviates pain, as it reduces pressure on the inflamed epididymis. - This sign is commonly used to differentiate **epididymitis** from **testicular torsion**, where pain typically worsens or remains unchanged with elevation. *Chronic epididymitis* - While potentially painful, **chronic epididymitis** usually presents with persistent, dull pain that is less likely to be acutely relieved by scrotal elevation. - The **Prehn sign** is primarily a diagnostic tool for **acute inflammatory conditions** of the epididymis. *Testicular torsion* - In **testicular torsion**, the pain is often sudden, severe, and typically **not relieved** by elevating the testicle; in fact, it may worsen. - This condition is a **surgical emergency** where blood flow to the testicle is compromised. *Acute scrotal pain due to other causes* - Other causes of **acute scrotal pain**, such as **trauma** or **incarcerated hernias**, generally do not exhibit a positive Prehn sign. - The **Prehn sign** is quite specific to the **inflammatory process** of epididymitis affecting pain perception.