ENT
5 questionsPosterosuperior retraction pocket if allowed to progress will lead to?
What is the treatment of choice for atticoantral type of chronic suppurative otitis media (CSOM)?
What condition is characterized by a bluish appearance of the tympanic membrane?
All are intracranial complications of otitis media except which of the following?
Which of the following statements about tubercular otitis media is false?
NEET-PG 2013 - ENT NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 881: Posterosuperior retraction pocket if allowed to progress will lead to?
- A. SNHL
- B. Secondary cholesteatoma
- C. Primary cholesteatoma (Correct Answer)
- D. Tympanosclerosis
Explanation: ***Primary cholesteatoma*** - A posterosuperior retraction pocket is a common precursor to the development of a **primary cholesteatoma**. - This pocket, formed by **negative pressure** in the middle ear, accumulates **desquamated keratin** and can erode surrounding bone. *SNHL* - While a cholesteatoma can ultimately cause **sensorineural hearing loss (SNHL)** due to extensive bone erosion affecting the inner ear, it is a later complication, not the direct outcome of the initial retraction pocket itself. - **SNHL** is more commonly associated with conditions directly damaging the **cochlea or auditory nerve**. *Secondary cholesteatoma* - A **secondary cholesteatoma** typically arises from a perforation in the tympanic membrane where skin migrates into the middle ear, not from an intact retraction pocket. - This condition is also known as a **'migratory'** or **'acquired'** cholesteatoma. *Tympanosclerosis* - **Tympanosclerosis** involves the formation of **hyalinized collagen and calcium deposits** within the tympanic membrane or middle ear mucosa, resulting from chronic inflammation or previous trauma. - It is a **fibrotic healing response** and does not directly result from a retraction pocket, although both can be sequelae of chronic otitis media.
Question 882: What is the treatment of choice for atticoantral type of chronic suppurative otitis media (CSOM)?
- A. Tympanoplasty
- B. Modified radical mastoidectomy (Correct Answer)
- C. None of the options
- D. Antibiotics
Explanation: ***Modified radical mastoidectomy*** - The **atticoantral type of CSOM** is characterized by active **cholesteatoma**, which requires surgical removal to prevent further bone erosion and complications. - A **modified radical mastoidectomy** is the treatment of choice as it removes the cholesteatoma and diseased mastoid air cells while aiming to preserve residual hearing. *Antibiotics* - While topical or systemic antibiotics may be used to control acute infections or discharge in CSOM, they do not eradicate **cholesteatoma**. - **Cholesteatoma** is an epidermoid cyst that requires surgical excision, as antibiotics alone cannot resolve it. *Tympanoplasty* - **Tympanoplasty** is primarily performed to reconstruct the tympanic membrane (eardrum) and/or the ossicular chain to restore hearing. - It is typically indicated for the **tubotympanic type of CSOM** (safe type) without cholesteatoma, not for the atticoantral type which involves cholesteatoma. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because **modified radical mastoidectomy** is a well-established and necessary treatment for the atticoantral type of CSOM involving cholesteatoma.
Question 883: What condition is characterized by a bluish appearance of the tympanic membrane?
- A. Otitis media with effusion (Correct Answer)
- B. Chronic suppurative otitis media
- C. Normal tympanic membrane
- D. Tympanic membrane perforation
Explanation: ***Otitis media with effusion (with hemotympanum)*** - A bluish appearance of the tympanic membrane is characteristically seen when there is **blood in the middle ear space (hemotympanum)**, which can occur in **otitis media with effusion containing hemorrhagic fluid**. - The blue discoloration results from **blood or hemorrhagic effusion** behind the intact tympanic membrane, which imparts a blue or purple hue when visualized through the translucent drum. - This can occur with **traumatic hemotympanum** (basal skull fracture, temporal bone trauma), **hemorrhagic OME**, or in patients with **bleeding disorders**. - Classic causes of blue tympanic membrane include middle ear hemorrhage associated with effusion. *Chronic suppurative otitis media* - CSOM typically involves persistent **purulent (pus-filled) discharge** and often a **perforation of the tympanic membrane**. - The tympanic membrane in CSOM is usually **inflamed, thickened, or perforated**, with active mucopurulent drainage rather than a bluish tinge. - The blue discoloration specifically indicates **blood in the middle ear**, not purulent infection. *Normal tympanic membrane* - A normal tympanic membrane is **pearly gray, translucent**, and mobile, with a visible cone of light and normal middle ear landmarks. - It does not exhibit bluish discoloration, which specifically indicates **underlying hemorrhage or hemorrhagic fluid** in the middle ear space. *Tympanic membrane perforation* - A perforation is a **visible hole or defect in the eardrum**, often with evidence of drainage. - While perforations can occur with various middle ear pathologies, a **blue/purple discoloration of an intact drum** specifically indicates **hemotympanum** (blood behind the membrane), not a perforation itself.
Question 884: All are intracranial complications of otitis media except which of the following?
- A. Brain abscess
- B. Hydrocephalus
- C. Lateral sinus thrombophlebitis
- D. Facial nerve palsy (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Facial nerve palsy*** - This is an **extracranial complication** of otitis media affecting the **facial nerve within the temporal bone**, not an intracranial structure. - The facial nerve (CN VII) runs through the **fallopian canal** in the temporal bone and can be affected by inflammation from adjacent mastoid or middle ear infection. - Classified as a **temporal bone complication** rather than an intracranial complication. *Lateral sinus thrombophlebitis* - This is a true **intracranial complication** involving thrombosis of the **sigmoid and lateral venous sinuses** within the cranial cavity. - Results from direct extension of infection through the **mastoid tegmen** or via septic thrombophlebitis. - Presents with features of sepsis, headache, and papilledema. *Brain abscess* - A severe **intracranial complication** representing focal suppurative infection within the **brain parenchyma** (commonly temporal lobe or cerebellum). - Occurs through direct extension via bony erosion, retrograde thrombophlebitis, or hematogenous spread. - Requires urgent neurosurgical intervention. *Hydrocephalus* - An **intracranial complication** that can occur secondary to **otogenic meningitis** or **lateral sinus thrombosis**. - Results from impaired CSF absorption or obstruction of CSF pathways. - More common in pediatric otitis media with CNS complications.
Question 885: Which of the following statements about tubercular otitis media is false?
- A. Spreads through the eustachian tube
- B. Usually affects only one ear
- C. Causes painful ear discharge (Correct Answer)
- D. May cause multiple perforations
Explanation: ***Causes painful ear discharge*** - **Pain** is typically an **absent or minimal symptom** in tubercular otitis media, even with significant ear discharge. - The discharge is usually **thin, watery, and non-purulent**, reflecting the indolent nature of the infection. *Spreads through the eustachian tube* - Tubercular otitis media can spread via the **eustachian tube** from the nasopharynx, especially in cases of active pulmonary or pharyngeal tuberculosis. - This is a common route for infectious agents to reach the middle ear. *Usually affects only one ear* - Tubercular otitis media predominantly presents as a **unilateral infection**. - While bilateral involvement can occur, it is less common than unilateral presentation. *May cause multiple perforations* - Tubercular otitis media is notorious for causing **multiple, small perforations** in the tympanic membrane. - This feature, often described as a "sieve-like" drum, is a characteristic diagnostic clue for the condition.
Internal Medicine
1 questionsWhich of the following is a complication of total parenteral nutrition?
NEET-PG 2013 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 881: Which of the following is a complication of total parenteral nutrition?
- A. Hyperglycemia (Correct Answer)
- B. Hyperkalemia
- C. Hyperglycemia and Hyperkalemia
- D. Hyperosmolar dehydration
Explanation: ***Hyperglycemia*** - Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) solutions contain a high concentration of **dextrose** (glucose), which can lead to elevated blood glucose levels, especially in patients with pre-existing metabolic issues or high infusion rates. - The sudden and continuous infusion of carbohydrates can overwhelm the body's **insulin response**, resulting in hyperglycemia [3]. *Hyperkalemia* - **Hypokalemia**, rather than hyperkalemia, is a more common electrolyte disturbance associated with TPN due to intracellular shifts of potassium with glucose metabolism [2]. - While TPN solutions do contain potassium, hyperkalemia is generally rare unless there is significant renal impairment or excessive potassium supplementation. *Hyperglycemia and Hyperkalemia* - While **hyperglycemia** is a common complication, **hyperkalemia** is not; in fact, hypokalemia is a more frequent concern linked to the significant glucose load in TPN. - This option incorrectly pairs a common complication with one that is rare and generally only seen in specific circumstances. *Hyperosmolar dehydration* - This condition, also known as **hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state (HHS)**, is a severe complication that can arise from uncontrolled hyperglycemia, where high glucose levels lead to osmotic diuresis and severe dehydration [1]. - While hyperglycemia is a precursor to hyperosmolar dehydration, the direct complication of TPN administration itself is the hyperglycemia.
Radiology
1 questionsWhat are the X-ray findings associated with chronic otitis media?
NEET-PG 2013 - Radiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 881: What are the X-ray findings associated with chronic otitis media?
- A. Honeycombing of mastoid
- B. Sclerosis with cavity in mastoid (Correct Answer)
- C. Clear-cut distinct bony partition between cells
- D. Increased pneumatization of mastoid cells
Explanation: ***Sclerosis with cavity in mastoid*** - Chronic otitis media leads to **long-standing inflammation** and **destruction** of the mastoid air cells, resulting in dense, **sclerotic bone** with cavity formation due to bone erosion. - This is the **characteristic X-ray finding** in chronic otitis media, indicating osseous remodeling and bone destruction from persistent infection. - The sclerosis represents reactive bone formation, while cavities form from **coalescence** of destroyed air cells. *Honeycombing of mastoid* - Honeycombing describes a **normal, well-pneumatized mastoid** with numerous small, distinct air cells visible on X-ray. - This appearance indicates a healthy mastoid bone with good aeration and is **inconsistent** with chronic inflammation. - Chronic otitis media causes bone remodeling and sclerosis, **not** preserved pneumatization. *Clear-cut distinct bony partition between cells* - This describes **normal mastoid anatomy** where air cells are well-defined and separated by thin, intact bony septa. - In chronic otitis media, these septa are typically **eroded or thickened** by inflammation, leading to loss of distinctness. - The inflammatory process causes destruction and sclerosis, **not** preservation of normal architecture. *Increased pneumatization of mastoid cells* - Increased pneumatization indicates **excessive air cell development**, which is opposite to the changes seen in chronic infection. - Chronic otitis media causes **destruction and sclerosis** of air cells, not increased pneumatization. - This would be seen in normal developmental variants, not chronic inflammatory disease.
Surgery
3 questionsSteroids are injurious to wound healing when administered during which time frame?
What is the method of reduction for an inguinal hernia?
What causes Frey's syndrome?
NEET-PG 2013 - Surgery NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 881: Steroids are injurious to wound healing when administered during which time frame?
- A. 2-4 weeks
- B. > 4 weeks
- C. Within 2 weeks (Correct Answer)
- D. On the first day
Explanation: ***Within 2 weeks*** - Steroids administered **within the first 2 weeks** of wound healing significantly impair the **inflammatory and proliferative phases**, crucial for new tissue formation. - This early disruption can lead to **decreased collagen synthesis**, reduced wound contraction, and increased risk of **dehiscence**. *On the first day* - While steroids can affect the very early inflammatory response, the most detrimental impact on overall wound healing processes, particularly **collagen deposition**, occurs over a slightly longer initial period. - The effects of a single dose on day one might be less pronounced than sustained steroid exposure during the more critical **proliferative phase**. *2-4 weeks* - By this stage, the wound is typically in the **remodeling phase**, where collagen fibers are being reorganized and strengthened. - While steroids can still mildly affect healing, their **most damaging effects** on crucial initial processes have usually passed. *> 4 weeks* - Beyond 4 weeks, the wound is generally well into the **remodeling or maturation phase**, and often has achieved significant tensile strength. - Steroid administration at this stage would have **minimal impact** on the overall structural integrity of the healed wound, although chronic steroid use has systemic effects.
Question 882: What is the method of reduction for an inguinal hernia?
- A. Taxis (Correct Answer)
- B. Stopa's technique
- C. Kugel patch
- D. McVay procedure
Explanation: ***Taxis*** - **Taxis** is the manual reduction of a hernia by applying gentle, sustained pressure to gently guide the herniated contents back into the abdominal cavity. - This technique is typically used for **reducible hernias** to prevent complications like strangulation. *Kugel maneuver* - The **Kugel patch** is a device used in the surgical repair of inguinal hernias, not a method of manual reduction. - It involves a **preperitoneal mesh** placed during an open repair to reinforce the weakened abdominal wall. *Macvay procedure* - The **McVay repair** (also known as Cooper's ligament repair) is a surgical technique for inguinal hernias. - It involves suturing the **conjoint tendon** to Cooper's ligament for a strong repair, not a manual reduction. *Stopa's technique* - "Stopa's technique" is not a recognized medical term or a standard method for hernia reduction or repair. - This option appears to be a **distractor** and does not correspond to any established medical procedure for hernias.
Question 883: What causes Frey's syndrome?
- A. Facial nerve damage.
- B. Greater auricular nerve involvement.
- C. Aberrant regeneration of parasympathetic fibers from the auriculotemporal nerve to sweat glands. (Correct Answer)
- D. None of the options
Explanation: ***Aberrant regeneration of parasympathetic fibers from the auriculotemporal nerve to sweat glands.*** - Frey's syndrome, or **gustatory sweating**, occurs due to aberrant regeneration after parotid surgery or trauma where parasympathetic secretomotor fibers meant for the **parotid gland** (carried by the auriculotemporal nerve) incorrectly reinnervate **sweat glands and blood vessels** in the overlying skin. - This misdirection leads to **sweating and flushing** over the parotid region in response to gustatory stimuli (eating, thinking about food). - The auriculotemporal nerve is a branch of the **mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve (V3)** that carries parasympathetic fibers to the parotid gland. *Greater auricular nerve involvement.* - The greater auricular nerve is a sensory nerve (from C2-C3) that provides sensation to the **external ear** and skin over the parotid region. - Damage to this nerve causes **numbness** in its distribution, not gustatory sweating. *Facial nerve damage.* - The facial nerve (CN VII) primarily controls **muscles of facial expression** and provides taste sensation from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue. - Damage leads to **facial paralysis**, not Frey's syndrome. *None of the options* - Incorrect, as the first option accurately describes the underlying cause of Frey's syndrome.