Anatomy
2 questionsAt which level do the somites initially form?
Double inferior vena cava is formed due to?
NEET-PG 2013 - Anatomy NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 71: At which level do the somites initially form?
- A. Lumbar level
- B. Sacral level
- C. Cervical level (Correct Answer)
- D. Thoracic level
Explanation: Cervical level - Somites, which are segmented blocks of paraxial mesoderm, initially appear in the **occipital/cranial cervical region** of the developing embryo around day 20 of development. - The first somite pair forms at the **occipital level**, and subsequent somites develop in a **cranio-caudal sequence**. - Development proceeds both cranially (forming occipital somites) and caudally (forming cervical, thoracic, lumbar, and sacral somites) from this initial formation. - By the end of the 5th week, approximately **42-44 somite pairs** are present. *Thoracic level* - Thoracic somites form subsequent to the initial occipital/cervical somites, as the segmentation process extends caudally. - The formation of somites is a sequential process along the **cranio-caudal axis**. *Lumbar level* - Lumbar somites develop later in the embryological timeline, after the cervical and thoracic regions have undergone somite formation. - The **caudal regions** receive somites progressively as development continues. *Sacral level* - Sacral somites are among the last to form, representing the caudal extent of somite development. - Their formation follows the cranio-caudal progression of somite appearance.
Question 72: Double inferior vena cava is formed due to?
- A. Persistence of both supracardinal and subcardinal veins
- B. Persistence of sacrocardinal veins
- C. Persistence of subcardinal veins
- D. Persistence of supracardinal veins (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Persistence of supracardinal veins*** - A double inferior vena cava (IVC) results from the **persistence of the left supracardinal vein**, which normally regresses. - This malformation causes the IVC to be duplicated below the level of the renal veins, creating two parallel venous channels ascending to join the normal IVC or renal veins. *Persistence of sacrocardinal veins* - The sacrocardinal veins are involved in the development of the **iliac veins** and the distal part of the IVC, but their independent persistence does not lead to a double IVC. - Abnormalities in sacrocardinal vein development are more commonly associated with conditions like **agenesis of the infrarenal IVC**. *Persistence of subcardinal veins* - The subcardinal veins mainly contribute to the formation of the **renal segment** of the IVC and the gonadal veins. - Their persistence or malformation can lead to a **retrocaval ureter** or other venous anomalies, but not a double IVC. *Persistence of both supracardinal and subcardinal veins* - While both supracardinal and subcardinal veins are crucial for IVC development, their **simultaneous persistence** in a way that creates a double IVC is not the direct mechanism [1]. - A double IVC is specifically attributed to the **persistence of the left supracardinal vein**, with the right supracardinal vein forming the normal right IVC [1].
Dental
1 questionsWhat is the first permanent tooth to erupt?
NEET-PG 2013 - Dental NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 71: What is the first permanent tooth to erupt?
- A. First premolar
- B. Second premolar
- C. First molar (Correct Answer)
- D. Second molar
Explanation: ***First molar*** - The **first molars** are typically the first permanent teeth to erupt, usually around **6 years of age**. - They erupt distal to the primary second molars and are not preceded by primary teeth, making them crucial for establishing the **occlusion**. *First premolar* - **First premolars** typically erupt later, between **10 and 11 years of age**, replacing the primary first molars. - Their eruption is part of the **exchange of primary teeth** for permanent successors. *Second premolar* - The **second premolars** erupt even later, usually between **11 and 12 years of age**, replacing the primary second molars. - They are also involved in the **replacement of primary teeth**, not the initial permanent eruption. *Second molar* - **Second molars** erupt much later than the first molars, typically between **11 and 13 years of age**, distal to the first molars. - They are part of the **later stages of permanent dentition development**.
Internal Medicine
2 questionsMigraine is due to
Which of the following statements about obesity is FALSE?
NEET-PG 2013 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 71: Migraine is due to
- A. Cortical spreading depression (Correct Answer)
- B. Dilatation of cranial blood vessels
- C. Constriction of cranial blood vessels
- D. Inflammation of the meninges
Explanation: ***Cortical spreading depression*** - The current understanding is that **cortical spreading depression (CSD)** is the initiating event in migraine with aura, characterized by a wave of neuronal and glial depolarization that spreads across the cerebral cortex, leading to a temporary shutdown of neuronal activity [1]. - CSD is thought to activate the **trigeminal nerve**, subsequently causing the release of inflammatory neuropeptides and contributing to the pain phase [1]. *Dilatation of cranial blood vessels* - While **vasodilation of intracranial and extracranial blood vessels** does occur during the headache phase of migraine, it is now considered a *consequence* of the initial neurological events rather than the primary cause [1]. - This vasodilation contributes to the throbbing sensation of migraine pain but does not explain the aura or the initiation of the attack. *Constriction of cranial blood vessels* - **Vasoconstriction** was previously thought to be the cause of the migraine aura, but this theory has largely been disproven. - While some temporary constriction may precede CSD, it is not the primary mechanism behind the migraine attack. *Inflammation of the meninges* - While **neurogenic inflammation** of the meninges, involving the release of inflammatory mediators like **calcitonin gene-related peptide (CGRP)**, does play a role in sensitizing the trigeminal system and contributing to migraine pain, it is a downstream effect. - It is not the initial trigger for a migraine attack but rather part of the pain pathway activated by events like CSD.
Question 72: Which of the following statements about obesity is FALSE?
- A. There is no genetic predisposition to obesity. (Correct Answer)
- B. Smoking is associated with weight loss
- C. Obesity affects only females.
- D. The prevalence of obesity decreases with age.
Explanation: There is no genetic predisposition to obesity. - This statement is false because genetic factors play a significant role in an individual's susceptibility to obesity, influencing metabolism, appetite, and fat storage [1]. - While environment and lifestyle are crucial, polygenic influences and certain single-gene disorders can heavily predispose individuals to weight gain [1]. *Smoking is associated with weight loss* - Smoking can lead to appetite suppression and an increased metabolic rate, which may result in weight loss or lower body weight compared to non-smokers. - However, this is not a healthy or recommended method for weight control due to the numerous severe health risks associated with smoking. *Obesity affects only females.* - This statement is false; obesity affects both males and females across all age groups and demographics [2]. - Although there can be differences in fat distribution and associated health risks between sexes, obesity is a global health issue impacting everyone [2]. *The prevalence of obesity decreases with age.* - This statement is generally false; the prevalence of obesity tends to increase with age through middle adulthood before possibly leveling off or slightly declining in older age. - Factors like decreased physical activity, changes in metabolism, and chronic disease accumulation contribute to weight gain later in life [3].
Physiology
5 questionsWhen blood pressure falls below 40 mm Hg, which mechanism of regulation is working?
Central chemoreceptors are most sensitive to which of the following changes in blood?
Deoxygenated blood is not seen in which of the following?
What is the air remaining in the lung after normal expiration?
Maximum voluntary ventilation is:
NEET-PG 2013 - Physiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 71: When blood pressure falls below 40 mm Hg, which mechanism of regulation is working?
- A. CNS ischemic reflex (Correct Answer)
- B. Chemoreceptor response
- C. Baroreceptor response
- D. None of the options
Explanation: ***CNS ischemic reflex*** - The **CNS ischemic reflex** is activated when blood pressure falls below 60 mmHg, with maximal activation below 40 mmHg, indicating severe ischemia in the brain's vasomotor center. - This reflex elicits an intense **sympathetic vasoconstriction** and cardiac stimulation to prioritize blood flow to the brain even at the expense of other organs. *Chemoreceptor response* - The chemoreceptor reflex is primarily activated by a decrease in **arterial pO2**, an increase in **pCO2**, or a decrease in **pH**. - While it can increase blood pressure, it is not the primary or most profound regulatory mechanism specifically triggered by extremely low blood pressure (below 40 mmHg) to prevent brain ischemia. *Baroreceptor response* - **Baroreceptors** are most sensitive to changes in blood pressure within the normal to moderately hypotensive range (e.g., 60-180 mmHg). - At very low pressures (below 40-50 mmHg), baroreceptors become **less sensitive** or "saturated," and their effectiveness in raising blood pressure significantly diminishes. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because the **CNS ischemic reflex** specifically functions as a powerful, last-ditch mechanism to maintain cerebral blood flow during severe hypotension which is a life saving reflex during conditions like hemorrhage.
Question 72: Central chemoreceptors are most sensitive to which of the following changes in blood?
- A. PO2
- B. HCO3-
- C. pH
- D. PCO2 (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***PCO2*** - Central chemoreceptors, located in the **medulla oblongata**, are exquisitely sensitive to changes in the **partial pressure of carbon dioxide (PCO2)** in the arterial blood. - An increase in blood PCO2 readily crosses the **blood-brain barrier** to the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF), where it is converted to carbonic acid and then to H+ and HCO3-. The resulting **drop in CSF pH** directly stimulates these chemoreceptors, leading to increased ventilation. *PO2* - While **peripheral chemoreceptors** (carotid and aortic bodies) are sensitive to changes in **PO2**, particularly when it drops significantly (below 60 mmHg), central chemoreceptors are not. - The primary role of central chemoreceptors is to monitor and respond to changes in CO2 and pH, rather than oxygen levels. *pH* - Central chemoreceptors are indirectly sensitive to **pH changes** in the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF), which result from blood PCO2 changes. - However, they are not directly or primarily sensitive to changes in **blood pH** because hydrogen ions do not readily cross the blood-brain barrier. *HCO3-* - Bicarbonate ions (**HCO3-**) are important in buffering pH, but central chemoreceptors do not directly sense bicarbonate levels. - Changes in HCO3- indirectly affect pH, and it is the resultant **H+ concentration** in the CSF, derived from CO2, that primarily stimulates central chemoreceptors.
Question 73: Deoxygenated blood is not seen in which of the following?
- A. Pulmonary artery
- B. Umbilical artery
- C. Pulmonary vein (Correct Answer)
- D. Right atrium
Explanation: ***Pulmonary vein*** - The pulmonary veins carry **oxygenated blood** from the lungs back to the left atrium of the heart. - Their primary function is to transport blood that has undergone **gas exchange** in the lungs, making it rich in oxygen. *Pulmonary artery* - The pulmonary artery carries **deoxygenated blood** from the right ventricle of the heart to the lungs. - This is an exception to the general rule that arteries carry oxygenated blood, as its purpose is to deliver blood for **oxygenation**. *Right atrium* - The right atrium receives **deoxygenated blood** from the systemic circulation via the superior and inferior vena cava. - It acts as a collecting chamber for blood that has supplied oxygen to the body's tissues before it is pumped to the lungs. *Umbilical artery* - The umbilical arteries carry **deoxygenated blood** and waste products from the fetus to the placenta. - In fetal circulation, these arteries are responsible for removing metabolic wastes and carbon dioxide from the fetal circulation.
Question 74: What is the air remaining in the lung after normal expiration?
- A. Tidal Volume (TV)
- B. Residual Volume (RV)
- C. Functional Residual Capacity (FRC) (Correct Answer)
- D. Vital Capacity (VC)
Explanation: ***Functional Residual Capacity (FRC)*** - **FRC** represents the volume of air remaining in the lungs after a **normal expiration**. - It is the sum of the **expiratory reserve volume (ERV)** and the **residual volume (RV)**. *Tidal Volume (TV)* - **TV** is the volume of air inspired or expired with a **normal breath**. - It does not represent the total air remaining in the lungs after expiration. *Residual Volume (RV)* - **RV** is the volume of air remaining in the lungs after a **maximal expiration**. - It is a component of FRC but does not fully describe the air remaining after a *normal* expiration. *Vital Capacity (VC)* - **VC** is the maximum volume of air that can be exhaled after a **maximal inspiration**. - It represents the maximum amount of air that can be exchanged with a single breath, not the air remaining after normal expiration.
Question 75: Maximum voluntary ventilation is:
- A. 25 L/min
- B. 50 L/min
- C. 100 L/min
- D. 150 L/min (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***150 L/min*** - The **Maximum Voluntary Ventilation (MVV)** represents the largest volume of air that can be breathed in and out using maximal effort over a 10-15 second period. - While it varies among individuals, a typical average value for a healthy adult is approximately **150-170 L/min**. *25 L/min* - This value is significantly lower than the typical MVV; 25 L/min is closer to a normal **resting minute ventilation** (tidal volume multiplied by respiratory rate). - Resting minute ventilation reflects the volume of air exchanged at rest, not the maximum capacity. *50 L/min* - This value is still considerably lower than the average MVV and does not represent the maximum capacity of the respiratory system. - It might be seen in individuals with **severe pulmonary impairment** or at a very high resting metabolic rate. *100 L/min* - While higher than resting values, 100 L/min is generally below the average maximum voluntary ventilation for a healthy adult. - It could represent a MVV in individuals with **mild to moderate respiratory compromise** or less effort during the test.