Community Medicine
8 questionsWhich of the following is a key criterion for a prudent diet?
Most effective preventive measure against rabies
In which condition is a night blood survey performed?
Which of the following diseases is not covered under the Integrated Disease Surveillance Project (IDSP)?
Antiserum is available for passive immunization against ?
Which of the following statements best describes the operational definition of onchocerciasis elimination?
Transovarian transmission is seen in-
At what stage does the contraction of a family typically begin?
NEET-PG 2013 - Community Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 761: Which of the following is a key criterion for a prudent diet?
- A. Fat intake 35-40% of total energy
- B. Dietary cholesterol < 300 mg/1000Kcal per day
- C. Salt intake <10 g/day
- D. Saturated fats < 10% of total energy (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Saturated fats < 10% of total energy*** - Limiting **saturated fat intake** to less than 10% of total energy is a key recommendation for a prudent diet to reduce the risk of **cardiovascular disease**. - High intake of saturated fats can increase **LDL cholesterol** ("bad" cholesterol), contributing to **atherosclerosis**. *Fat intake 35-40% of total energy* - This range is generally considered **too high** for a healthy diet, as excessive fat intake can lead to **obesity** and increased risk of chronic diseases. - A more prudent range for total fat intake is typically around **20-35% of total energy**. *Dietary cholesterol < 300 mg/1000Kcal per day* - While limiting dietary cholesterol was historically a key recommendation, current guidelines emphasize reducing **saturated and trans fats** more strongly than dietary cholesterol itself due to its limited impact on blood cholesterol for most people. - The limit of **300 mg/day** for dietary cholesterol is an older guideline; many newer recommendations do not specify an upper limit for dietary cholesterol for healthy individuals. *Salt intake <10 g/day* - This statement indicates a salt intake of less than 10 grams per day, which is still **higher** than the generally recommended upper limit for a prudent diet. - Current guidelines suggest limiting **sodium intake** to less than 2300 mg (approximately 5.8g of salt) per day, with an ideal limit of less than 1500 mg (approximately 3.8g of salt) for most adults to manage **blood pressure**.
Question 762: Most effective preventive measure against rabies
- A. Heat
- B. Humidity
- C. Avoiding contact with infected animals and vaccination (Correct Answer)
- D. None of the options
Explanation: ***Avoiding contact with infected animals and vaccination*** ✓ - The most effective preventive measure against rabies is to **avoid contact with potentially infected animals**, especially wild animals and unvaccinated domestic animals. - **Vaccination** (pre-exposure prophylaxis) is crucial for individuals at high risk of exposure (veterinarians, animal handlers, laboratory workers) and for domestic animals, forming the cornerstone of rabies prevention. - Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) with immunoglobulin and vaccine series is highly effective when administered promptly after exposure. *Heat* - While high temperatures can inactivate the rabies virus in a laboratory setting, it is **not a practical or effective preventive measure** against rabies in real-world scenarios. - The virus is transmitted through bites, scratches, and mucous membrane contact with infected saliva; environmental heat does not prevent transmission or infection. *Humidity* - **Humidity does not play a significant role** in the prevention or transmission of rabies. - The rabies virus is labile outside of a host and does not survive long in the environment, regardless of humidity levels. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because there are highly effective preventive measures against rabies, as detailed in the correct option. - Rabies prevention is well-established through public health interventions (animal vaccination programs, post-exposure prophylaxis) and individual precautions.
Question 763: In which condition is a night blood survey performed?
- A. Lymphatic filariasis (Correct Answer)
- B. Typhoid fever
- C. Malaria infection
- D. Visceral leishmaniasis
Explanation: ***Lymphatic filariasis*** - A **night blood survey** is crucial for diagnosing lymphatic filariasis because the microfilariae of species like *Wuchereria bancrofti* and *Brugia malayi* exhibit **nocturnal periodicity**, meaning they are most abundant in peripheral blood between 10 PM and 2 AM. - Collecting blood at night maximizes the chance of detecting these parasites, which are responsible for the disease. *Typhoid fever* - Diagnosis of **typhoid fever** primarily relies on **blood cultures** taken during the febrile phase, or stool/urine cultures later in the disease. - A night blood survey is not relevant for detecting the causative bacterium, *Salmonella Typhi*. *Malaria infection* - While a **blood smear** is essential for diagnosing malaria, the timing of blood collection is less critical than for filariasis, although peak parasite density can vary. - **Malaria parasites** are typically detected in blood samples taken during symptomatic periods, regardless of specific time of day. *Visceral leishmaniasis* - **Visceral leishmaniasis** is diagnosed by detecting parasites in samples from **bone marrow**, spleen, or lymph nodes, or through serological tests for antibodies. - A night blood survey is not used in the diagnosis of *Leishmania donovani* infection.
Question 764: Which of the following diseases is not covered under the Integrated Disease Surveillance Project (IDSP)?
- A. Tuberculosis
- B. Cholera
- C. Herpes zoster (Correct Answer)
- D. Meningococcal disease
Explanation: ***Herpes zoster*** - **Herpes zoster** (shingles) is not included in the Integrated Disease Surveillance Project (IDSP) as it is neither an epidemic-prone disease nor a notifiable disease under the program. - IDSP focuses on diseases with significant public health impact, epidemic potential, or those requiring immediate public health response. - While herpes zoster can cause morbidity in immunocompromised individuals, it does not pose a widespread public health threat requiring national surveillance. *Tuberculosis* - **Tuberculosis (TB)** is explicitly covered under IDSP as a major notifiable disease due to its high burden in India and significant public health importance. - TB surveillance under IDSP helps monitor disease trends, detect outbreaks, and evaluate the effectiveness of the National Tuberculosis Elimination Programme. - Regular reporting and surveillance are essential for achieving TB elimination goals. *Cholera* - **Cholera** is a priority disease under IDSP as an epidemic-prone disease with potential for rapid outbreaks and high mortality if untreated. - It is part of the core surveillance list due to its ability to cause severe dehydration and waterborne epidemics. - Early detection through IDSP enables timely implementation of control measures including safe water supply and oral rehydration therapy. *Meningococcal disease* - **Meningococcal disease** (acute bacterial meningitis) is covered under IDSP due to its high case fatality rate, epidemic potential, and need for urgent public health response. - Surveillance is critical for early outbreak detection and implementation of preventive measures such as mass vaccination and chemoprophylaxis. - Close monitoring helps identify circulating serotypes and guide vaccination strategies.
Question 765: Antiserum is available for passive immunization against ?
- A. Rabies (Correct Answer)
- B. Typhoid
- C. Mumps
- D. Measles
Explanation: ***Rabies*** - **Antiserum** (or rabies immune globulin, RIG) provides immediate **passive immunity** against rabies, neutralizing the virus before the body can mount an active immune response. - It is administered in conjunction with the **rabies vaccine** for post-exposure prophylaxis, especially in severe exposures. *Typhoid* - **Typhoid fever** is primarily prevented through vaccination (active immunization) and improved sanitation. - There is no routinely available antiserum for **passive immunization** against *Salmonella typhi* infection. *Measles* - **Measles** is prevented through active immunization with the MMR (measles, mumps, rubella) vaccine. - While immune globulin can be used for passive protection in exposed, immunocompromised individuals, it's not commonly referred to as "antiserum" in the same context as rabies. *Mumps* - **Mumps** is prevented by active immunization with the MMR vaccine. - Similar to measles, there is no commonly used specific antiserum for **passive immunity** against mumps in the clinical setting.
Question 766: Which of the following statements best describes the operational definition of onchocerciasis elimination?
- A. All interventions have been successfully implemented.
- B. There is no recrudescence of the disease after a defined period.
- C. All of the options are true.
- D. Transmission of O. volvulus has been reduced to a level where it cannot sustain itself in the population. (Correct Answer)
Explanation: **Transmission of O. volvulus has been reduced to a level where it cannot sustain itself in the population.** - This statement accurately reflects the definition of **disease elimination**, where the incidence of infection is reduced to zero in a defined geographical area, signifying that the **transmission cycle can no longer be sustained**. - For onchocerciasis, this means the **vector (blackfly)** is no longer transmitting the parasite (*Onchocerca volvulus*) between humans at a rate that allows the disease to persist. *All interventions have been successfully implemented.* - While successful implementation of interventions is crucial for elimination, it is a **process goal**, not the **ultimate outcome** or operational definition of elimination itself. - Elimination is defined by the **absence of sustained transmission**, which is a direct measure of disease burden, not intervention fidelity. *There is no recrudescence of the disease after a defined period.* - The **absence of recrudescence** (re-emergence) after a defined period is an important indicator of successful elimination validation, but it is a **consequence** or **part of the verification process**, not the primary operational definition. - The operational definition focuses on the **state of transmission** that leads to this sustained absence. *All of the options are true.* - This option is incorrect because only one of the provided statements accurately describes the **operational definition of elimination** in the context of parasitic diseases like onchocerciasis. - The other options describe aspects related to the elimination process or its verification, but not the core definition.
Question 767: Transovarian transmission is seen in-
- A. Malaria
- B. Filaria
- C. Rickettsial diseases (Correct Answer)
- D. None of the options
Explanation: ***Rickettsial diseases*** - **Transovarian transmission** is a key mechanism for the maintenance and spread of **rickettsiae** in arthropod vectors. The bacteria can pass from an infected female arthropod (like a tick or mite) to her offspring via the eggs. - This ensures that the next generation of vectors is already infected and can transmit the disease, even without needing to acquire the pathogen from an infected vertebrate host. *Malaria* - Malaria is transmitted via the bite of an infected **Anopheles mosquito**, which acquires parasites from an infected human. - **Transovarian transmission** does not occur in malaria; mosquitoes are not born with the ability to transmit the parasite. *Filaria* - Filariasis is spread by various **mosquito vectors** (e.g., *Culex*, *Anopheles*, *Aedes*) or **black flies**, which acquire microfilariae from an infected host during a blood meal. - The parasite undergoes development within the insect, but **transovarian transmission** to the insect's offspring does not occur. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because **rickettsial diseases** do exhibit transovarian transmission, making it a valid answer. - The phenomenon of passing pathogens directly from a female parent to her offspring via the egg is a specific mechanism seen in certain vector-borne diseases.
Question 768: At what stage does the contraction of a family typically begin?
- A. Marriage
- B. Birth of the first child
- C. Birth of the last child
- D. Leaving home of the first child (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Leaving home of the first child*** - The **departure of the first child** from the home marks the beginning of the **contraction phase** of the family life cycle. - This stage signifies a decrease in the number of active family members residing in the home, initiating the process of family shrinkage. *Marriage* - Marriage is the **initial stage** of the family life cycle, where a new family unit is formed, typically referred to as the **establishment phase**. - This phase focuses on **role adjustment** and bonding, not the contraction of the family size. *Birth of the first child* - The birth of the first child marks the beginning of the **expansion stage** of the family life cycle. - This stage is characterized by an **increase in family size** and the establishment of parental roles. *Birth of the last child* - The birth of the last child typically represents the **end of the expansion phase** and the beginning of the **stable or child-rearing phase**. - While it caps the increase in family size, it doesn't initiate the contraction, as all children are still living at home.
Microbiology
1 questionsMaximum density of microfilariae in blood is reported to be between -
NEET-PG 2013 - Microbiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 761: Maximum density of microfilariae in blood is reported to be between -
- A. 9 pm to 11 pm
- B. 11 pm to 2 am (Correct Answer)
- C. 8 pm to 10 pm
- D. 2 am to 5 am
Explanation: ***11 pm to 2 am*** - This period aligns with the **nocturnal periodicity** of *Wuchereria bancrofti* and *Brugia malayi* microfilariae, which are the most common causes of filariasis. - The microfilariae migrate to the **peripheral circulation** during these hours, making it the optimal time for blood smear collection for diagnosis. *9 pm to 11 pm* - While still within the active period for microfilarial migration, the **peak density** is generally observed slightly later. - Blood drawn during this time might show microfilariae, but in lower concentrations compared to the peak. *8 pm to 10 pm* - This timing is generally a little too early to consistently capture the **highest microfilarial load** in nocturnal periodic infections. - The microfilariae are still in the process of migrating from deeper tissues to the peripheral blood. *2 am to 5 am* - By this time, the microfilarial density in the peripheral blood of **nocturnal periodic species** usually starts to decline. - While some microfilariae may still be present, the count would likely be lower than during the earlier peak hours.
Physiology
1 questionsOssicles of middle ear are responsible for which of the following ?
NEET-PG 2013 - Physiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 761: Ossicles of middle ear are responsible for which of the following ?
- A. Amplification of sound intensity
- B. Reduction of sound intensity
- C. Protecting the inner ear
- D. Reduction of impedance for sound transmission (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Reduction of impedance for sound transmission*** - The ossicles (malleus, incus, and stapes) act as a **lever system** to match the impedance between the air-filled outer ear and the fluid-filled inner ear. - This impedance matching ensures that maximum sound energy is transferred to the cochlea, preventing significant **sound reflection**. *Amplification of sound intensity* - While the ossicles do slightly amplify the sound pressure, their primary role is not extensive amplification but rather **impedance matching**. - The amplification achieved is a byproduct of efficient energy transfer, rather than a direct goal of increasing sound intensity for its own sake. *Reduction of sound intensity* - This function is primarily attributed to the **acoustic reflex**, where the middle ear muscles contract to stiffen the ossicular chain in response to loud sounds. - The primary function of the ossicles themselves is to transmit sound efficiently, not to reduce intensity under normal conditions. *Protecting the inner ear* - While the **acoustic reflex** (involving middle ear muscles attached to the ossicles) offers some protection against very loud sounds by stiffening the ossicular chain, this is a separate, reflexive mechanism. - The intrinsic structure and primary mechanical function of the ossicles are centered on efficient sound transmission, not direct physical protection of the inner ear.