NEET-PG 2013 Practice Questions

Q: In which condition is a night blood survey performed?

Lymphatic filariasis. ***Lymphatic filariasis*** - A **night blood survey** is crucial for diagnosing lymphatic filariasis because the microfilariae of species like *Wuchereria bancrofti* and *Brugia malayi* exhibit **nocturnal periodicity**, meaning they are most abundant in peripheral blood between 10 PM and 2 AM. - Collecting blood at night maximizes the chance of detecting these parasites, which are responsible for the disease. *Typhoid fever* - Diagnosis of **typhoid fever** primarily relies on **blood cultures** taken during the febrile phase, or stool/urine cultures later in the disease. - A night blood survey is not relevant for detecting the causative bacterium, *Salmonella Typhi*. *Malaria infection* - While a **blood smear** is essential for diagnosing malaria, the timing of blood collection is less critical than for filariasis, although peak parasite density can vary. - **Malaria parasites** are typically detected in blood samples taken during symptomatic periods, regardless of specific time of day. *Visceral leishmaniasis* - **Visceral leishmaniasis** is diagnosed by detecting parasites in samples from **bone marrow**, spleen, or lymph nodes, or through serological tests for antibodies. - A night blood survey is not used in the diagnosis of *Leishmania donovani* infection.

Q: Which of the following diseases is not covered under the Integrated Disease Surveillance Project (IDSP)?

Herpes zoster. ***Herpes zoster*** - **Herpes zoster** (shingles) is not included in the Integrated Disease Surveillance Project (IDSP) as it is neither an epidemic-prone disease nor a notifiable disease under the program. - IDSP focuses on diseases with significant public health impact, epidemic potential, or those requiring immediate public health response. - While herpes zoster can cause morbidity in immunocompromised individuals, it does not pose a widespread public health threat requiring national surveillance. *Tuberculosis* - **Tuberculosis (TB)** is explicitly covered under IDSP as a major notifiable disease due to its high burden in India and significant public health importance. - TB surveillance under IDSP helps monitor disease trends, detect outbreaks, and evaluate the effectiveness of the National Tuberculosis Elimination Programme. - Regular reporting and surveillance are essential for achieving TB elimination goals. *Cholera* - **Cholera** is a priority disease under IDSP as an epidemic-prone disease with potential for rapid outbreaks and high mortality if untreated. - It is part of the core surveillance list due to its ability to cause severe dehydration and waterborne epidemics. - Early detection through IDSP enables timely implementation of control measures including safe water supply and oral rehydration therapy. *Meningococcal disease* - **Meningococcal disease** (acute bacterial meningitis) is covered under IDSP due to its high case fatality rate, epidemic potential, and need for urgent public health response. - Surveillance is critical for early outbreak detection and implementation of preventive measures such as mass vaccination and chemoprophylaxis. - Close monitoring helps identify circulating serotypes and guide vaccination strategies.

Q: Antiserum is available for passive immunization against ?

Rabies. ***Rabies*** - **Antiserum** (or rabies immune globulin, RIG) provides immediate **passive immunity** against rabies, neutralizing the virus before the body can mount an active immune response. - It is administered in conjunction with the **rabies vaccine** for post-exposure prophylaxis, especially in severe exposures. *Typhoid* - **Typhoid fever** is primarily prevented through vaccination (active immunization) and improved sanitation. - There is no routinely available antiserum for **passive immunization** against *Salmonella typhi* infection. *Measles* - **Measles** is prevented through active immunization with the MMR (measles, mumps, rubella) vaccine. - While immune globulin can be used for passive protection in exposed, immunocompromised individuals, it's not commonly referred to as "antiserum" in the same context as rabies. *Mumps* - **Mumps** is prevented by active immunization with the MMR vaccine. - Similar to measles, there is no commonly used specific antiserum for **passive immunity** against mumps in the clinical setting.

Q: Transovarian transmission is seen in-

Rickettsial diseases. ***Rickettsial diseases*** - **Transovarian transmission** is a key mechanism for the maintenance and spread of **rickettsiae** in arthropod vectors. The bacteria can pass from an infected female arthropod (like a tick or mite) to her offspring via the eggs. - This ensures that the next generation of vectors is already infected and can transmit the disease, even without needing to acquire the pathogen from an infected vertebrate host. *Malaria* - Malaria is transmitted via the bite of an infected **Anopheles mosquito**, which acquires parasites from an infected human. - **Transovarian transmission** does not occur in malaria; mosquitoes are not born with the ability to transmit the parasite. *Filaria* - Filariasis is spread by various **mosquito vectors** (e.g., *Culex*, *Anopheles*, *Aedes*) or **black flies**, which acquire microfilariae from an infected host during a blood meal. - The parasite undergoes development within the insect, but **transovarian transmission** to the insect's offspring does not occur. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because **rickettsial diseases** do exhibit transovarian transmission, making it a valid answer. - The phenomenon of passing pathogens directly from a female parent to her offspring via the egg is a specific mechanism seen in certain vector-borne diseases.

Q: What is the primary method of primordial prevention for Coronary Artery Disease (CAD)?

Lifestyle change. ***Lifestyle change*** - **Primordial prevention** aims to prevent the development of risk factors themselves, which is best achieved through promoting healthy behaviors like diet, exercise, and avoiding tobacco at the population level. - This approach acts *before* the onset of risk factors, addressing societal and environmental determinants of health. - Examples include promoting healthy eating habits in schools, creating walkable communities, and tobacco-free environments. *Coronary bypass* - **Coronary bypass surgery** is a treatment for established CAD with significant blockages, not a preventive measure. - It falls under the category of **tertiary prevention**, aiming to reduce complications and improve quality of life in existing disease. *Treatment of CAD* - **Treating CAD** (e.g., medications like statins or antiplatelets, procedures like angioplasty) is a form of **secondary** or **tertiary prevention**. - It focuses on managing existing disease or preventing its progression, rather than preventing the initial development of risk factors. *Screening for hypertension* - **Screening** is a form of **secondary prevention** aimed at early detection of risk factors or disease. - While important, it occurs *after* risk factors have already developed, unlike primordial prevention which prevents risk factors from emerging.

Q: What is the BMI range that defines preobesity?

25-29.9. ***25-29.9*** - A **Body Mass Index (BMI)** between 25 and 29.9 kg/m² is classified as **overweight** [1] or **preobesity**. - This range indicates an increased risk of developing various health problems associated with higher body weight [1]. *18.5-24.9* - This BMI range is considered **normal weight**, which is generally ideal for health [1]. - Individuals within this range typically have the lowest risk of weight-related health complications [1]. *30-34.9* - A BMI in this range is classified as **obesity class I** [1]. - This category indicates a significantly increased risk of developing co-morbidities such as type 2 diabetes and cardiovascular disease [1]. *35-39.9* - This BMI range represents **obesity class II** (severe obesity) [1]. - Individuals in this category face a high risk of serious health issues and often require more aggressive intervention strategies [1].

Q: What is the BMI classification for an obese person?

≥30. ***≥30*** - A **Body Mass Index (BMI)** of **30 kg/m² or higher** is the standard WHO classification for **obesity**. - This classification indicates a significant accumulation of body fat that poses increased health risks including cardiovascular disease, type 2 diabetes, and certain cancers. *Less than 18.5* - A BMI in this range indicates that an individual is **underweight**, which also carries potential health risks associated with insufficient body mass. - This is the opposite end of the spectrum from obesity. *18.5-24.9* - This range represents a **healthy weight** or **normal BMI**, indicating a balanced proportion of weight to height. - Individuals in this category generally have the lowest health risks associated with body weight. *25-29.9* - A BMI within this range indicates **overweight**, which is a precursor to obesity if lifestyle changes are not made. - While not categorized as obese, it still carries increased health risks compared to a normal BMI.

Q: Maximum density of microfilariae in blood is reported to be between -

11 pm to 2 am. ***11 pm to 2 am*** - This period aligns with the **nocturnal periodicity** of *Wuchereria bancrofti* and *Brugia malayi* microfilariae, which are the most common causes of filariasis. - The microfilariae migrate to the **peripheral circulation** during these hours, making it the optimal time for blood smear collection for diagnosis. *9 pm to 11 pm* - While still within the active period for microfilarial migration, the **peak density** is generally observed slightly later. - Blood drawn during this time might show microfilariae, but in lower concentrations compared to the peak. *8 pm to 10 pm* - This timing is generally a little too early to consistently capture the **highest microfilarial load** in nocturnal periodic infections. - The microfilariae are still in the process of migrating from deeper tissues to the peripheral blood. *2 am to 5 am* - By this time, the microfilarial density in the peripheral blood of **nocturnal periodic species** usually starts to decline. - While some microfilariae may still be present, the count would likely be lower than during the earlier peak hours.

Q: Which of the following is a method of natural family planning that involves tracking basal body temperature?

Basal body temperature (BBT) method. ***Basal body temperature (BBT) method*** - The **basal body temperature** (BBT) method relies on a slight increase in a woman's resting body temperature, typically by 0.5 to 1.0°F, occurring after **ovulation**. - This temperature shift signals that ovulation has occurred, allowing couples to identify the **fertile window** and avoid intercourse during that time. - This method involves tracking daily basal body temperature to predict ovulation. *Coitus interruptus (withdrawal method)* - This method involves the male withdrawing his penis from the vagina just before **ejaculation**. - It does not involve tracking **basal body temperature** and has a higher failure rate compared to many other contraceptive methods due to potential pre-ejaculatory fluid containing sperm. *Safe period (calendar method)* - The calendar method, also known as the **rhythm method** or **Ogino-Knaus method**, estimates the fertile window based on the typical length of a woman's menstrual cycles. - This method relies on calculating the approximate times of ovulation and avoiding intercourse during those days; it does not involve daily **temperature tracking**. *Abstinence (not having sexual intercourse)* - **Abstinence** involves completely refraining from sexual intercourse and is the only 100% effective method of preventing pregnancy and sexually transmitted infections (STIs). - This method does not involve any form of physical tracking, such as **basal body temperature**, as there is no risk of conception.

Question 1

In which condition is a night blood survey performed?

Accepted Answer

Lymphatic filariasis

Answer

Typhoid fever

Answer

Malaria infection

Answer

Visceral leishmaniasis

Question 2

Which of the following diseases is not covered under the Integrated Disease Surveillance Project (IDSP)?

Accepted Answer

Herpes zoster

Answer

Tuberculosis

Answer

Cholera

Answer

Meningococcal disease

Question 3

Antiserum is available for passive immunization against ?

Accepted Answer

Rabies

Answer

Typhoid

Answer

Mumps

Answer

Measles

Question 4

Which of the following statements best describes the operational definition of onchocerciasis elimination?

Accepted Answer

Transmission of O. volvulus has been reduced to a level where it cannot sustain itself in the population.

Answer

All interventions have been successfully implemented.

Answer

There is no recrudescence of the disease after a defined period.

Answer

All of the options are true.

Question 5

Transovarian transmission is seen in-

Accepted Answer

Rickettsial diseases

Answer

Malaria

Answer

Filaria

Answer

None of the options

Question 6

What is the primary method of primordial prevention for Coronary Artery Disease (CAD)?

Accepted Answer

Lifestyle change

Answer

Coronary bypass

Answer

Treatment of CAD

Answer

Screening for hypertension

Question 7

What is the BMI range that defines preobesity?

Accepted Answer

25-29.9

Answer

18.5-24.9

Answer

30-34.9

Answer

35-39.9

Question 8

What is the BMI classification for an obese person?

Accepted Answer

≥30

Answer

Less than 18.5

Answer

18.5-24.9

Answer

25-29.9

Question 9

Maximum density of microfilariae in blood is reported to be between -

Accepted Answer

11 pm to 2 am

Answer

9 pm to 11 pm

Answer

8 pm to 10 pm

Answer

2 am to 5 am

Question 10

Which of the following is a method of natural family planning that involves tracking basal body temperature?

Accepted Answer

Basal body temperature (BBT) method

Answer

Coitus interruptus (withdrawal method)

Answer

Safe period (calendar method)

Answer

Abstinence (not having sexual intercourse)

NEET-PG 2013

Community Medicine

Microbiology

Obstetrics and Gynecology