NEET-PG 2013 Practice Questions

Q: Ideal temperature for DPT storage?

4 to 8°C. ***4 to 8°C*** - The ideal temperature for DPT (diphtheria, pertussis, tetanus) vaccine storage is between **+2°C and +8°C** (or 35°F and 46°F), which is the standard refrigerator temperature range. - This temperature range is crucial for maintaining the **potency** and **efficacy** of the vaccine, preventing **degradation** due to excessive heat or cold. *Room temperature* - Storing DPT vaccines at **room temperature** (typically 20-25°C or 68-77°F) for extended periods can lead to a **loss of potency** as heat can degrade vaccine components. - While short-term excursions within this range might be permissible under specific conditions (e.g., during transport), it is not the ideal long-term storage solution. *0 to - 20°C* - DPT vaccines, particularly the **whole-cell pertussis (wP)** component, can be **damaged by freezing**. - Temperatures below 0°C can cause the **adjuvant** (usually aluminum salt) to separate, leading to a loss of efficacy and potential local reactions at the injection site. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because **4 to 8°C** is indeed the established and recommended ideal storage temperature for DPT vaccines.

Q: Which vaccine is associated with a risk of encephalopathy?

Measles. ***Measles*** - Among the options provided, **measles vaccine** has been reported to have a very rare association with **post-vaccination encephalitis/encephalopathy** (approximately 1 per million doses). - **Important note:** The **pertussis vaccine (particularly whole-cell DTP)** is the vaccine most classically associated with encephalopathy risk, but it is not among the options here. - The risk of encephalopathy from the measles vaccine is significantly lower than the risk from natural measles infection itself. - Modern measles vaccines are highly purified and safer than earlier formulations. *OPV* - **Oral Polio Vaccine (OPV)** is associated with **vaccine-associated paralytic poliomyelitis (VAPP)**, not encephalopathy. - VAPP occurs at a rate of approximately 1 case per 2.4 million doses due to reversion of the attenuated virus to a neurovirulent form. - Manifests as flaccid paralysis, not encephalopathy. *Rubella* - **Rubella vaccine** (component of MMR) is very safe with no significant association with encephalopathy. - Rare adverse effects include transient arthralgia (especially in adult women), mild rash, or lymphadenopathy. - Severe neurological complications are extremely rare. *BCG* - **Bacillus Calmette-Guérin (BCG) vaccine** protects against tuberculosis and is not associated with encephalopathy. - Common adverse effects are local reactions: induration, ulceration, scarring, and rarely lymphadenitis. - Disseminated BCG infection can occur in immunocompromised individuals but is distinct from encephalopathy.

Q: Which vaccine is contraindicated in pregnancy?

Measles vaccine. ***Measles vaccine*** - The measles vaccine is a **live attenuated vaccine**, which carries a theoretical risk of causing infection in the fetus. - Live vaccines are generally **contraindicated during pregnancy** due to this potential risk of congenital infection. *Cholera vaccine* - The cholera vaccine is generally considered **safe during pregnancy** if indicated, especially for travel to endemic areas. - While administration in pregnancy should be based on risk-benefit, it is not consistently contraindicated like live vaccines. *Typhoid vaccine* - Both inactivated and live attenuated typhoid vaccines are available; the **inactivated (killed) vaccine** is generally preferred if vaccination is necessary during pregnancy. - The risks of the disease usually outweigh the vaccine risks, and it is not a universal contraindication. *Meningococcal vaccine* - **Meningococcal vaccines** are generally considered safe and can be administered during pregnancy if there is a significant risk of exposure or during outbreaks. - The benefits of maternal and potential fetal protection from meningococcal disease outweigh theoretical risks.

Q: What is the appropriate diluent for the BCG vaccine?

Sterile distilled water. ***Sterile distilled water*** - **Sterile distilled water** is the recommended diluent for the **BCG vaccine** to ensure proper reconstitution and antigen stability. - Using the correct diluent is critical for maintaining the **efficacy** and safety of the vaccine. *Sterile normal saline* - **Sterile normal saline** (0.9% NaCl) can be used as a diluent for some vaccines, but it is **not appropriate for BCG** as it can negatively impact vaccine viability. - The **salt concentration** in saline can affect the live attenuated organisms in the BCG vaccine. *Sterile dextrose solution* - **Dextrose solutions** are generally avoided as vaccine diluents due to their potential to support **bacterial growth** or alter vaccine stability. - They are primarily used for **intravenous fluid administration** and not for vaccine reconstitution. *Colloid solutions* - **Colloid solutions** like albumin or dextran are never used as vaccine diluents as they can interfere with the **vaccine antigens** and cause adverse reactions. - These solutions are typically used for **plasma volume expansion** and have no role in vaccine preparation.

Q: Which of the following statements about incidence is false?

Does not include unit of time. ***Does not include unit of time*** - This statement is false because **incidence** is defined as the number of **new cases** of a disease over a specific period of time in a population at risk. - Therefore, it inherently includes a **unit of time** (e.g., per year, per month), making this option incorrect as a characteristic of incidence. *It is a rate* - **Incidence is a rate** because it quantifies the speed at which new cases of a disease occur within a population. - It expresses the number of new events (cases) per unit of population at risk over a specified time period. *Numerator includes new cases* - The **numerator of incidence** specifically counts the number of **new cases** of a disease that develop during a defined observation period. - This distinguishes it from prevalence, which includes all existing cases. *Denominator includes population at risk* - The **denominator for incidence** comprises the **population at risk** of developing the disease during the observation period. - Individuals who already have the disease or are immune are typically excluded from the denominator.

Q: Which of the following statements about Platauf's hemorrhages is correct?

Subpleural hemorrhage. ***Subpleural hemorrhage*** - **Platauf's hemorrhages** are **defined as subpleural hemorrhages** found on the surface of the lungs, particularly in cases of **asphyxial death** related to drowning. - This is the **most accurate and specific statement** as it describes the **pathological nature** of Platauf's hemorrhages. - These hemorrhages result from the rupture of small capillaries due to sudden increase in intrathoracic pressure and aspiration of water during drowning. - They appear as **small petechial hemorrhages** on the **anterior, lateral, and inferior surfaces** of the lungs. *Mostly seen in middle lobe* - This is **incorrect**. Platauf's hemorrhages can occur in **any lobe** of the lungs, not specifically the middle lobe. - They are more commonly described as being present on the **anterior and lateral margins** and **inferior surfaces** of the lungs, regardless of lobe. *All are true* - This statement is **incorrect** because the statement about the middle lobe is false, making "All are true" false. *Sign of drowning* - While this statement has merit, it is **less specific** than "subpleural hemorrhage." - Platauf's hemorrhages are indeed **strongly associated with drowning** and are considered one of the **internal findings in drowning deaths**. - However, they are **not absolutely pathognomonic** - they can occasionally be seen in other forms of acute asphyxia or conditions involving severe acute pulmonary congestion. - The **defining characteristic** is that they are **subpleural hemorrhages**, which is a more precise pathological description than calling them simply a "sign of drowning." - Therefore, when asked "which statement is correct," the **most accurate and specific answer** is "Subpleural hemorrhage."

Q: Miscarriage due to medical negligence is seen under which IPC?

Sec 304A IPC. ***Sec 304A IPC*** - This section specifically deals with **causing death by negligence** (rash or negligent acts not amounting to culpable homicide). - **Medical negligence causing miscarriage** falls under this section as it involves an unintentional harm due to negligent medical practice. - This is the appropriate section when there is no voluntary intent to cause miscarriage, but harm results from professional negligence. *Sec 312 IPC* - This section deals with **voluntarily causing miscarriage**, requiring intentional/voluntary act. - It applies when a person **intentionally** causes a woman to miscarry (criminal abortion). - Medical **negligence** does not constitute a voluntary act in the legal sense, so Sec 312 does not apply to negligence cases. *Sec 310 IPC* - This section is related to **thuggee**, defining someone who habitually commits robbery or child-stealing by murder. - It has no relevance to medical negligence or miscarriage. *Sec 314 IPC* - This section deals with **death caused by an act done with intent to cause miscarriage**. - It applies when an intentional act to cause miscarriage results in the death of the woman. - This requires criminal intent, not negligence.

Q: Cheilography is the study of ?

Lip prints. ***Lip prints:*** - **Cheiloscopy**, or cheilography, is the forensic study of **lip prints** for individual identification. - Just like fingerprints, lip prints are unique to each individual and can be used as evidence. *Finger prints:* - The study of **fingerprints** is known as **dermatoglyphics** or dactyloscopy, not cheilography. - Fingerprints are commonly used in forensic science due to their unique ridge patterns. *Breath analysis:* - **Breath analysis** typically involves examining exhaled air for substances like alcohol or gases, used for diagnostic or forensic purposes. - This field is known as **breathomics** or clinical breath testing, not cheilography. *Foot prints:* - The examination of **footprints** is known as **podoscopy** or **pedobarography**, used in forensics and biomechanics. - Footprints provide information about an individual's gait and foot structure.

Q: Which one of the following agents has been associated with hemorrhagic stroke?

Phenylpropanolamine. ***Phenylpropanolamine*** - **Phenylpropanolamine (PPA)** is a sympathomimetic agent that was formerly used as a nasal decongestant and anorectic. - Its use has been linked to an increased risk of **hemorrhagic stroke**, particularly in young women, due to its **vasoconstrictive effects** and potential to cause a sudden, severe rise in blood pressure. *Terfenadine* - **Terfenadine** is a second-generation antihistamine that was voluntarily withdrawn from the market due to its association with severe **cardiac arrhythmias (QT prolongation and Torsades de Pointes)**, not hemorrhagic stroke. - It works by blocking H1 histamine receptors but also had effects on cardiac potassium channels. *Quinidine* - **Quinidine** is an antiarrhythmic drug (Class Ia) primarily used to treat supraventricular and ventricular arrhythmias. - Its main side effects include **gastrointestinal disturbances**, **cinchonism**, and the risk of **QT prolongation** leading to Torsades de Pointes; it is not typically associated with hemorrhagic stroke. *Fenfluramine* - **Fenfluramine** was an anorectic drug used in the treatment of obesity, often in combination with phentermine. - It was withdrawn from the market due to its association with **pulmonary hypertension** and **cardiac valvulopathy**, not hemorrhagic stroke.

Q: Which of the following drugs can cause thyroid dysfunction?

Amiodarone. ***Amiodarone*** - **Amiodarone** is known to cause both **hypothyroidism** and **hyperthyroidism** due to its high iodine content and direct toxic effects on the thyroid gland. - Its effects can persist for months after discontinuation due to its **long half-life** and accumulation in tissues. *Ampicillin* - **Ampicillin** is an antibiotic that generally does not directly affect thyroid function. - Its primary mechanism of action involves inhibiting **bacterial cell wall synthesis**, with no known significant endocrine side effects. *Ibutilide* - **Ibutilide** is an antiarrhythmic drug used for recent-onset atrial fibrillation or flutter. - It works by blocking potassium channels and has no recognized association with thyroid dysfunction. *Acyclovir* - **Acyclovir** is an antiviral medication used to treat herpes virus infections. - Its mechanism of action involves inhibiting viral DNA replication and it is not known to impact thyroid hormone synthesis or metabolism.

Question 1

Ideal temperature for DPT storage?

Accepted Answer

4 to 8°C

Answer

Room temperature

Answer

0 to - 20°C

Answer

None of the options

Question 2

Which vaccine is associated with a risk of encephalopathy?

Accepted Answer

Measles

Answer

OPV

Answer

Rubella

Answer

BCG

Question 3

Which vaccine is contraindicated in pregnancy?

Accepted Answer

Measles vaccine

Answer

Cholera vaccine

Answer

Typhoid vaccine

Answer

Meningococcal vaccine

Question 4

What is the appropriate diluent for the BCG vaccine?

Accepted Answer

Sterile distilled water

Answer

Sterile normal saline

Answer

Sterile dextrose solution

Answer

Colloid solutions

Question 5

Which of the following statements about incidence is false?

Accepted Answer

Does not include unit of time

Answer

It is a rate

Answer

Numerator includes new cases

Answer

Denominator includes population at risk

Question 6

Which of the following statements about Platauf's hemorrhages is correct?

Accepted Answer

Subpleural hemorrhage

Answer

All are true

Answer

Mostly seen in middle lobe

Answer

Sign of drowning

Question 7

Miscarriage due to medical negligence is seen under which IPC?

Accepted Answer

Sec 304A IPC

Answer

Sec 310 IPC

Answer

Sec 312 IPC

Answer

Sec 314 IPC

Question 8

Cheilography is the study of ?

Accepted Answer

Lip prints

Answer

Finger prints

Answer

Breath analysis

Answer

Foot prints

Question 9

Which one of the following agents has been associated with hemorrhagic stroke?

Accepted Answer

Phenylpropanolamine

Answer

Terfenadine

Answer

Quinidine

Answer

Fenfluramine

Question 10

Which of the following drugs can cause thyroid dysfunction?

Accepted Answer

Amiodarone

Answer

Ampicillin

Answer

Ibutilide

Answer

Acyclovir

NEET-PG 2013

Community Medicine

Forensic Medicine

Pharmacology