NEET-PG 2013 Practice Questions

Q: Which of the following statements about incidence is false?

Does not include unit of time. ***Does not include unit of time*** - This statement is false because **incidence** is defined as the number of **new cases** of a disease over a specific period of time in a population at risk. - Therefore, it inherently includes a **unit of time** (e.g., per year, per month), making this option incorrect as a characteristic of incidence. *It is a rate* - **Incidence is a rate** because it quantifies the speed at which new cases of a disease occur within a population. - It expresses the number of new events (cases) per unit of population at risk over a specified time period. *Numerator includes new cases* - The **numerator of incidence** specifically counts the number of **new cases** of a disease that develop during a defined observation period. - This distinguishes it from prevalence, which includes all existing cases. *Denominator includes population at risk* - The **denominator for incidence** comprises the **population at risk** of developing the disease during the observation period. - Individuals who already have the disease or are immune are typically excluded from the denominator.

Q: In blood culture the ratio of blood to reagent is?

1:10. ***1:10*** - A 1:10 ratio of **blood to reagent (culture media)** is recommended for optimal growth of microorganisms in blood cultures. - This dilution minimizes the inhibitory effect of **human antimicrobial factors** present in the blood, while still providing sufficient blood volume for pathogen detection. *1:5* - A 1:5 ratio would mean a relatively **higher concentration of blood** in the culture. - This higher concentration could lead to increased inhibition of bacterial growth by **host defense mechanisms** or **antibiotics** present in the patient's blood, potentially causing false-negative results. *1:20* - A 1:20 ratio implies a **lower concentration of blood** relative to the culture media. - While it further dilutes inhibitory factors, it also reduces the total number of microorganisms sampled, possibly leading to **false-negative results** if the bacterial load is low. *1:100* - A 1:100 ratio would result in an **extremely low concentration of blood** in the culture. - This significantly reduces the likelihood of detecting microorganisms, especially when the **bacteremia is sparse**, due to insufficient bacterial inoculum, leading to a high rate of false negatives.

Q: 2 months old child having birth weight 2kg, with poor feeding, very sleepy and wheezing. The diagnosis is?

Very severe disease. ***Very severe disease*** - According to **WHO/IMNCI (Integrated Management of Neonatal and Childhood Illness) classification** for young infants (0-2 months), the presence of **danger signs** automatically classifies the condition as "Very severe disease" - This infant presents with two critical danger signs: **poor feeding** and **lethargy (very sleepy)**, along with respiratory symptoms (wheezing) - In young infants, any danger sign (poor feeding, lethargic/unconscious, convulsions, severe chest indrawing, central cyanosis) requires immediate classification as "Very severe disease" and **urgent referral** to higher center - This is a specific diagnostic classification used in pediatric emergency protocols, not a general term *Severe respiratory infection* - While the child has respiratory symptoms (wheezing), this classification would only be appropriate if respiratory distress was present **without danger signs** - The presence of danger signs (poor feeding, lethargy) escalates the classification to "Very severe disease" in the WHO/IMNCI protocol - In young infants (0-2 months), the classification system prioritizes danger signs over organ-specific diagnoses *No evidence of pneumonia* - This is incorrect as the infant clearly presents with respiratory symptoms (wheezing) and systemic signs of illness - The presence of wheezing, poor feeding, and lethargy indicates serious illness requiring urgent evaluation and treatment - This option contradicts the clinical presentation *No diagnosis* - This is incorrect as the WHO/IMNCI classification provides a clear diagnostic framework - The presence of danger signs in a young infant mandates classification as "Very severe disease" - A working diagnosis is essential for guiding appropriate management and urgent referral

Q: In which of the following conditions is Verapamil not typically used?

Ventricular tachycardia. ***Ventricular tachycardia*** - Verapamil, a **non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker**, can worsen hemodynamics in patients with **ventricular tachycardia (VT)** by causing profound hypotension or precipitating cardiac arrest. - VT often requires prompt treatment with **antiarrhythmics like amiodarone** or **electrical cardioversion**, as it can be life-threatening. - Verapamil is **contraindicated in VT** due to its negative inotropic effects and risk of hemodynamic collapse. *Angina pectoris* - Verapamil is effectively used to treat angina pectoris by **decreasing myocardial oxygen demand** through negative chronotropic and inotropic effects, and by causing **coronary vasodilation**, improving blood flow. - Its effects help to reduce the frequency and severity of anginal episodes, particularly in **stable angina**. *Atrial fibrillation* - Verapamil is commonly used for **rate control in atrial fibrillation** by **slowing conduction through the AV node**, which decreases the ventricular response rate. - It helps to manage symptoms and prevent complications related to rapid heart rates in this arrhythmia. *Hypertension* - Verapamil is used in the treatment of **hypertension** through its vasodilatory effects and reduction in peripheral vascular resistance. - It is particularly useful in patients who cannot tolerate other antihypertensive agents or as part of combination therapy.

Q: Pyridoxine is used in treatment of ?

Homocystinuria. ***Homocystinuria*** - **Pyridoxine (vitamin B6)** is a cofactor for the enzyme **cystathionine beta-synthase**, which is deficient in many forms of homocystinuria. - In pyridoxine-responsive homocystinuria, high doses of pyridoxine can help reduce **homocysteine levels** by stimulating residual enzyme activity. *Galactosemia* - This is an inherited disorder affecting the body's ability to metabolize **galactose**, due to deficiency of enzymes like galactose-1-phosphate uridyltransferase. - Treatment primarily involves dietary restriction of **galactose** and lactose, not pyridoxine. *Phenylketonuria* - This metabolic disorder results from a deficiency in **phenylalanine hydroxylase**, leading to a buildup of phenylalanine. - Treatment involves a strict **low-phenylalanine diet** and sometimes sapropterin (BH4). *Propionic acidemia* - This organic acidemia is caused by a deficiency in **propionyl-CoA carboxylase**, an enzyme requiring **biotin** as a cofactor. - Treatment involves dietary protein restriction and often carnitine supplementation, with **biotin** sometimes used, but not pyridoxine.

Q: Which of the following medications is known to cause peripheral neuropathy?

Vincristine. ***Vincristine*** - **Vincristine** is a **vinca alkaloid chemotherapeutic agent** that is **notorious** for causing **peripheral neuropathy** as its **dose-limiting toxicity**. - It interferes with **microtubule function** during mitosis, leading to **axonal damage** and predominantly **sensorimotor neuropathy**. - Peripheral neuropathy occurs in **virtually all patients** receiving vincristine and typically manifests as **distal paresthesias**, **loss of deep tendon reflexes**, and **motor weakness**. - This is the **most characteristic adverse effect** of vincristine. *Paclitaxel* - **Paclitaxel** is a **taxane chemotherapeutic agent** that also causes **peripheral neuropathy** as a significant adverse effect. - It stabilizes **microtubules**, preventing their depolymerization, leading to neurotoxicity. - While peripheral neuropathy is common with paclitaxel, it shares prominence with other major toxicities like **myelosuppression** and **hypersensitivity reactions**. *Sulfonamide* - **Sulfonamide antibiotics** are primarily associated with **hypersensitivity reactions**, **crystalluria**, **skin rashes**, and **hematologic abnormalities**. - Peripheral neuropathy is not a recognized or common adverse effect of sulfonamides. *Amiodarone* - **Amiodarone** is an **antiarrhythmic drug** with multiple adverse effects including **pulmonary fibrosis**, **thyroid dysfunction**, **corneal deposits**, and **hepatotoxicity**. - While rare cases of **peripheral neuropathy** have been reported, it is **not a characteristic or common adverse effect** of amiodarone.

Q: Peripheral neuropathy as a side effect is caused by which of the following anticancer drugs?

Vincristine. ***Vincristine*** - **Vincristine** is a **vinca alkaloid** that works by inhibiting **microtubule formation**, which is essential for cell division [1], [3]. - Its major dose-limiting toxicity is **peripheral neuropathy**, manifesting as paresthesias, weakness, and loss of reflexes due to damage to neuronal microtubules [1], [2]. *Cyclophosphamide* - **Cyclophosphamide** is an **alkylating agent** that forms cross-links in DNA, leading to cell death. - Its most common side effects include **myelosuppression**, hemorrhagic cystitis, and alopecia; **peripheral neuropathy** is generally not a prominent adverse effect. *Etoposide* - **Etoposide** is a **topoisomerase II inhibitor** that causes DNA strand breaks. - Key toxicities include **myelosuppression** and **gastrointestinal disturbances**, but it is not typically associated with significant peripheral neuropathy. *Irinotecan* - **Irinotecan** is a **topoisomerase I inhibitor** that causes DNA damage during replication. - Its primary dose-limiting toxicities are **diarrhea** and **myelosuppression**, not peripheral neuropathy.

Q: Which of the following is a renin inhibitor?

Remikiren. **Remikiren** - **Remikiren** is a direct **renin inhibitor** that acts by binding to the active site of renin, preventing its interaction with angiotensinogen. - This inhibition reduces the formation of **angiotensin I** and subsequently **angiotensin II**, leading to decreased blood pressure. *Losartan* - **Losartan** is an **Angiotensin II Receptor Blocker (ARB)**, meaning it blocks AT1 receptors, preventing angiotensin II from binding. - It does not inhibit renin activity directly but rather acts downstream in the **renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS)**. *Benazepril* - **Benazepril** is an **Angiotensin-Converting Enzyme (ACE) inhibitor**, which blocks the enzyme responsible for converting **angiotensin I** to **angiotensin II**. - It does not directly inhibit renin production or activity. *Imidapril* - **Imidapril** is also an **Angiotensin-Converting Enzyme (ACE) inhibitor**, similar to benazepril. - Its mechanism of action involves inhibiting ACE, thereby reducing **angiotensin II** levels, rather than directly inhibiting renin.

Q: Which of the following is not commonly recognized as a hepatotoxic drug?

Streptomycin. ***Streptomycin*** - Streptomycin is primarily associated with **ototoxicity** (vestibular and cochlear damage) and **nephrotoxicity** (kidney damage), not significant hepatotoxicity. - While most drugs can theoretically cause liver injury, streptomycin is not frequently cited as a major hepatotoxin in clinical practice. *Chlorpropamide* - This **sulfonylurea oral hypoglycemic agent** can cause a range of liver injuries, from asymptomatic enzyme elevations to severe **cholestatic hepatitis** or hepatocellular damage. - Its hepatotoxic potential is well-documented, leading to its decreased use compared to newer antidiabetic agents. *Allopurinol* - Allopurinol, used to treat **gout** and hyperuricemia, is known to cause a variety of adverse effects, including **hypersensitivity reactions** that can involve the liver. - It can lead to **hepatocellular injury**, cholestasis, or mixed liver damage, sometimes as part of a severe drug reaction with eosinophilia and systemic symptoms (**DRESS syndrome**). *Halothane* - Halothane is a potent **halogenated inhalational anesthetic** historically associated with a rare but severe form of idiosyncratic liver injury known as **halothane hepatitis**. - This condition involves **massive hepatic necrosis** and has a high mortality rate, leading to its eventual replacement by newer anesthetics.

Q: Botulinum toxin acts on

Synapse. ***Synapse*** - **Botulinum toxin** acts by inhibiting the release of **acetylcholine** at the **neuromuscular junction**, which is a type of synapse. - This blockade of neurotransmitter release at the **presynaptic terminal** prevents muscle contraction, leading to paralysis. *Smooth muscle of intestine* - While botulinum toxin can affect smooth muscle indirectly by paralyzing the motor nerves innervating them, its primary site of action is the **synapse** itself, not directly on the muscle fibers. - The toxin primarily targets the nerve endings, rather than the mechanical contractility of the muscle cell. *Central nervous system* - **Botulinum toxin** does not readily cross the **blood-brain barrier**, meaning its primary effects are peripheral. - Its therapeutic and toxic effects are localized to the **peripheral nervous system** and neuromuscular junctions. *Sensory nerves* - **Botulinum toxin** specifically targets **motor nerve endings** to inhibit acetylcholine release, leading to muscle paralysis. - It does not directly affect the function of **sensory nerve transmission** or pain perception in the same way.

Question 1

Which of the following statements about incidence is false?

Accepted Answer

Does not include unit of time

Answer

It is a rate

Answer

Numerator includes new cases

Answer

Denominator includes population at risk

Question 2

In blood culture the ratio of blood to reagent is?

Accepted Answer

1:10

Answer

1:5

Answer

1:20

Answer

1:100

Question 3

2 months old child having birth weight 2kg, with poor feeding, very sleepy and wheezing. The diagnosis is?

Accepted Answer

Very severe disease

Answer

No evidence of pneumonia

Answer

Severe respiratory infection

Answer

No diagnosis

Question 4

In which of the following conditions is Verapamil not typically used?

Accepted Answer

Ventricular tachycardia

Answer

Angina pectoris

Answer

Atrial fibrillation

Answer

Hypertension

Question 5

Pyridoxine is used in treatment of ?

Accepted Answer

Homocystinuria

Answer

Galactosemia

Answer

Phenylketonuria

Answer

Propionic acidemia

Question 6

Which of the following medications is known to cause peripheral neuropathy?

Accepted Answer

Vincristine

Answer

Sulfonamide

Answer

Amiodarone

Answer

Paclitaxel

Question 7

Peripheral neuropathy as a side effect is caused by which of the following anticancer drugs?

Accepted Answer

Vincristine

Answer

Cyclophosphamide

Answer

Etoposide

Answer

Irinotecan

Question 8

Which of the following is a renin inhibitor?

Accepted Answer

Remikiren

Answer

Losartan

Answer

Benazepril

Answer

Imidapril

Question 9

Which of the following is not commonly recognized as a hepatotoxic drug?

Accepted Answer

Streptomycin

Answer

Chlorpropamide

Answer

Allopurinol

Answer

Halothane

Question 10

Botulinum toxin acts on

Accepted Answer

Synapse

Answer

Smooth muscle of intestine

Answer

Central nervous system

Answer

Sensory nerves

NEET-PG 2013

Community Medicine

Microbiology

Pediatrics

Pharmacology