Community Medicine
1 questionsA person has lost his leg in an accident and is unable to walk. This condition is classified as -
NEET-PG 2013 - Community Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 681: A person has lost his leg in an accident and is unable to walk. This condition is classified as -
- A. Disability (Correct Answer)
- B. Medical condition
- C. Physical limitation
- D. Mobility challenge
Explanation: ***Disability*** - The loss of a limb leading to inability to walk is classified as a **disability** because it significantly impairs a major life activity. - According to the **WHO International Classification of Functioning, Disability and Health (ICF)**, disability is an **umbrella term** encompassing impairments (loss of limb), activity limitations (inability to walk), and participation restrictions. - The scenario describes both an **impairment** (anatomical loss) and an **activity limitation** (functional consequence), which together constitute a **disability**. *Medical condition* - While the accident caused a medical condition (trauma, amputation), the term "medical condition" describes the **disease or injury state** itself, not its functional impact. - The question asks for the **classification** of the inability to walk, which is a functional consequence, not the primary medical diagnosis. *Physical limitation* - This is a **descriptive term** for restricted physical capacity but not a standard **classification** in public health terminology. - In the WHO ICF framework, this would fall under "activity limitation," which is a component of disability rather than a separate classification. *Mobility challenge* - This is a colloquial or lay term describing the **difficulty in moving** but lacks the specificity of formal medical classification. - While accurate descriptively, it does not represent the **standardized terminology** used in Community Medicine and rehabilitation frameworks.
Forensic Medicine
1 questionsWhat is the term for sexual intercourse between closely related individuals?
NEET-PG 2013 - Forensic Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 681: What is the term for sexual intercourse between closely related individuals?
- A. Incest (Correct Answer)
- B. Extramarital affair
- C. Bestiality
- D. Tribadism
Explanation: ***Incest*** - This term refers to **sexual activity** between individuals who are considered **too closely related** to marry or have sexual relations within a particular society's laws or customs. - The definition of closeness can vary culturally and legally, but it generally includes immediate family members like parents, children, and siblings. - Under Indian law (IPC Section 376), incestuous relationships are prohibited and can constitute sexual offenses. *Extramarital affair* - This describes sexual relations between a **married person** and someone who is **not their spouse**. - It does not necessarily involve closely related individuals; the key aspect is the breach of marital fidelity. - This is a social/moral term rather than specifically a forensic classification. *Bestiality* - This refers to sexual activity between a **human and an animal**, also known as **zoophilia**. - This is distinct from incest, which specifically concerns human-to-human sexual relations within a family. - Under IPC Section 377, this was considered an unnatural offense. *Tribadism* - This describes various forms of **sexual intimacy between women**, particularly non-penetrative activity. - This term does not involve familial relationships or biological closeness as defined by incest. - It is a descriptive term for a type of sexual behavior, not a classification of prohibited relationships.
Pharmacology
8 questionsWhich drug is primarily used in the treatment of breast cancer?
Which of the following antiretroviral drugs is not associated with peripheral neuropathy?
Tetracycline injection causes palsy of which nerve?
What is the primary indication for the use of Erlotinib?
Which anticancer drug is known to inhibit spindle formation during cell division?
Which calcium channel blocker has the shortest duration of action?
What is the drug of choice for a classical angina attack?
Which of the following medications is relevant in the management of prostatic carcinoma?
NEET-PG 2013 - Pharmacology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 681: Which drug is primarily used in the treatment of breast cancer?
- A. Tamoxifen (Correct Answer)
- B. Cyproterone
- C. Testosterone
- D. Chlorambucil
Explanation: ***Tamoxifen*** - **Tamoxifen** is a **selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM)** primarily used to treat and prevent **estrogen receptor (ER)-positive breast cancer**. - It works by blocking estrogen from binding to receptors in breast cancer cells, thereby inhibiting their growth. *Cyproterone* - **Cyproterone** is an **anti-androgen** and **progestogen** primarily used to treat conditions like **prostate cancer**, **acne**, and **hirsutism** in women. - Its main mechanism involves blocking androgen receptors and reducing androgen production, which is not the primary pathway for breast cancer. *Testosterone* - **Testosterone** is an **androgen** (male sex hormone) and is **not used** in the primary treatment of breast cancer. - In certain rare cases of severe metastatic breast cancer, androgens like high-dose testosterone have been historically used for palliation, but this is not standard therapy. *Chlorambucil* - **Chlorambucil** is an **alkylating agent** used primarily in the treatment of **chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)** and certain **lymphomas**. - It works by interfering with DNA replication and transcription, but it is not a first-line or primary agent for breast cancer.
Question 682: Which of the following antiretroviral drugs is not associated with peripheral neuropathy?
- A. Stavudine
- B. Zalcitabine
- C. Didanosine
- D. Indinavir (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Indinavir*** - **Indinavir** is a **protease inhibitor** that can cause side effects such as **nephrolithiasis** (kidney stones) and **hyperbilirubinemia**, but it is generally *not associated with peripheral neuropathy*. - It works by blocking the viral protease enzyme, preventing the cleavage of viral polyproteins into functional proteins, which disrupts viral replication. *Stavudine* - **Stavudine** is a **nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NRTI)** notorious for causing dose-dependent **peripheral neuropathy**. - This toxicity is due to its interference with **mitochondrial DNA synthesis**, leading to nerve damage. *Zalcitabine* - **Zalcitabine** (ddC) is another **NRTI** strongly associated with a high incidence of **peripheral neuropathy**. - Its mechanism of action and side effect profile are similar to those of stavudine in causing **mitochondrial toxicity**. *Didanosine* - **Didanosine** (ddI) is an **NRTI** known to cause several adverse effects, including **peripheral neuropathy**, particularly at higher doses. - Like other dideoxynucleoside analogs, its toxicity is linked to **mitochondrial dysfunction**.
Question 683: Tetracycline injection causes palsy of which nerve?
- A. Radial (Correct Answer)
- B. Median
- C. Ulnar
- D. Superficial peroneal
Explanation: ***Radial*** - Tetracycline injections, especially when given in the deltoid region, can inadvertently injure the **radial nerve** due to its superficial course. - Damage to the radial nerve typically results in **wrist drop** and sensory deficits over the dorsum of the hand. *Ulnar* - The **ulnar nerve** is commonly injured at the elbow (cubital tunnel syndrome) or wrist (Guyon's canal). - Injury typically results in weakness of intrinsic hand muscles and sensory loss in the little finger and ulnar half of the ring finger, which is not characteristic of an injection injury in the deltoid region. *Median* - The **median nerve** is more frequently injured at the wrist (carpal tunnel syndrome) or elbow. - Injury causes difficulty with thumb opposition and sensation in the first three and a half digits on the palmar side. *Superficial peroneal* - The **superficial peroneal nerve** is found in the lower leg and foot, innervating the lateral compartment muscles and providing sensation to the dorsum of the foot. - It would not be affected by an injection in the upper arm or shoulder region.
Question 684: What is the primary indication for the use of Erlotinib?
- A. Colon cancer
- B. Gall bladder cancer
- C. Pancreatic cancer
- D. NSCLC (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***NSCLC (Non-Small Cell Lung Cancer)*** - **Erlotinib** is primarily indicated for patients with advanced **non-small cell lung cancer (NSCLC)**, particularly those with activating mutations in the **epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR)**. - It functions as an **EGFR tyrosine kinase inhibitor**, blocking the signaling pathways essential for cancer cell growth and survival. - This is the **FDA-approved primary indication** and where Erlotinib shows the most significant clinical benefit. *Pancreatic cancer* - While Erlotinib has been used in combination with gemcitabine for **locally advanced, unresectable or metastatic pancreatic cancer**, it is not its primary or most prominent indication. - Its efficacy in pancreatic cancer is generally modest and overshadowed by its dramatic impact in EGFR-mutated NSCLC. *Colon cancer* - **Erlotinib** is **not a primary treatment** for **colon cancer**. - Other targeted therapies (such as anti-EGFR monoclonal antibodies like cetuximab) or chemotherapy regimens are typically used for colorectal cancer. *Gall bladder cancer* - **Erlotinib** is generally **not indicated** for the treatment of **gallbladder cancer**. - Treatment often involves surgery, chemotherapy, or radiation, with targeted therapies being less established for this malignancy.
Question 685: Which anticancer drug is known to inhibit spindle formation during cell division?
- A. Busulfan
- B. Vinca alkaloids (Correct Answer)
- C. 5-FU
- D. Methotrexate
Explanation: ***Vinca alkaloids*** - **Vinca alkaloids**, such as **vincristine** and **vinblastine**, bind to **tubulin** and prevent its polymerization into microtubules. - This action effectively **inhibits the formation of the mitotic spindle**, leading to metaphase arrest and ultimately cell death. *Busulfan* - **Busulfan** is an **alkylating agent** that **cross-links DNA**, thereby interfering with DNA replication and transcription. - Its primary mechanism is **DNA damage**, not direct inhibition of spindle formation. *5-FU* - **5-fluorouracil (5-FU)** is an **antimetabolite** that inhibits **thymidylate synthase**, thereby impairing DNA synthesis and repair. - It acts by **mimicking pyrimidine bases** and incorporating into DNA and RNA, leading to cellular dysfunction. *Methotrexate* - **Methotrexate** is an **antifolate** drug that inhibits **dihydrofolate reductase**, an enzyme crucial for the synthesis of purines and pyrimidines. - This enzyme inhibition leads to **impaired DNA and RNA synthesis**, impacting rapidly dividing cells.
Question 686: Which calcium channel blocker has the shortest duration of action?
- A. Diltiazem
- B. Amlodipine
- C. Nimodipine (Correct Answer)
- D. Verapamil
Explanation: ***Nimodipine*** - Nimodipine is a **dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker** specifically formulated for cerebral vasodilation and used in conditions like **subarachnoid hemorrhage**. - It has a relatively **short half-life** and rapid onset, making its duration of action shorter compared to other commonly used calcium channel blockers. *Amlodipine* - Amlodipine is known for its **long duration of action** and once-daily dosing due to its slow absorption and high bioavailability. - Its prolonged action is beneficial for conditions like **hypertension and angina**, where sustained vasodilation is desired. *Diltiazem* - Diltiazem's duration of action is **intermediate** compared to other calcium channel blockers, often requiring BID to TID dosing for immediate-release formulations. - It's a **non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker** with effects on both vascular smooth muscle and cardiac conduction. *Verapamil* - Verapamil also has an **intermediate duration of action**, similar to diltiazem, with immediate-release forms requiring multiple daily doses. - As a **non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker**, it has significant effects on myocardial contractility and AV nodal conduction.
Question 687: What is the drug of choice for a classical angina attack?
- A. CCBs
- B. β-blocker
- C. GTN (Correct Answer)
- D. Prazosin
Explanation: ***GTN*** - **Glyceryl trinitrate (GTN)** is the drug of choice for immediate relief of a classical angina attack because it rapidly dilates coronary arteries and peripheral blood vessels, reducing **myocardial oxygen demand** and improving blood flow [2]. - Its **nitric oxide** mediated vasodilatory effects quickly alleviate chest pain by decreasing **preload** and afterload [2], [3]. *CCBs* - **Calcium channel blockers (CCBs)** are used for long-term prevention of angina by reducing myocardial oxygen demand, but they are not the first-line treatment for acute relief due to their slower onset of action [1]. - While they can dilate coronary arteries and reduce heart rate/contractility, their role is more in **prophylaxis** rather than acute symptom management [1]. *β-blocker* - **Beta-blockers** are primarily used for chronic management and prevention of angina by reducing heart rate, contractility, and blood pressure, thereby decreasing myocardial oxygen demand. - They are generally avoided for acute angina attacks as they do not provide rapid symptomatic relief and can potentially worsen symptoms in some acute ischemic conditions. *Prazocin* - **Prazosin** is an **alpha-1 adrenergic blocker** primarily used to treat hypertension and benign prostatic hyperplasia. - It causes vasodilation but is not indicated for the treatment of acute angina, as its mechanism of action and onset of effect are not suitable for rapid relief of myocardial ischemia.
Question 688: Which of the following medications is relevant in the management of prostatic carcinoma?
- A. Clomiphene
- B. Finasteride (Correct Answer)
- C. None of the options
- D. Danazol
Explanation: ***Finasteride*** - **Finasteride** is a **5α-reductase inhibitor** that blocks the conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone (DHT), which is crucial for prostate growth and development. - It is used in the **chemoprevention of prostatic carcinoma** in high-risk individuals, as demonstrated by the **Prostate Cancer Prevention Trial (PCPT)**, which showed a **25% reduction in prostate cancer risk**. - While finasteride is primarily used for **benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)** and **androgenetic alopecia**, its role in reducing prostate cancer risk makes it relevant in prostatic carcinoma management. - It is the only medication among the options with established relevance to prostate cancer. *Danazol* - **Danazol** is an attenuated androgen used primarily for **endometriosis**, **fibrocystic breast disease**, and **hereditary angioedema**. - It suppresses the pituitary-ovarian axis and has **no role in prostatic carcinoma management**. *Clomiphene* - **Clomiphene** is a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) used to induce **ovulation in women** with infertility. - It stimulates gonadotropin release and is **not applicable to prostatic carcinoma** treatment or management. *None of the options* - This is incorrect because **finasteride has an established role** in prostate cancer chemoprevention and is relevant in the broader management of prostatic conditions including carcinoma risk reduction.