NEET-PG 2013 Practice Questions

Q: All are true regarding the development of T-cells, except?

T-cells are located in mantle layer of spleen. ***T-cells are located in mantle layer of spleen*** - The **mantle layer** (or marginal zone) of the spleen is primarily associated with **B-lymphocytes**, which are involved in antibody production. - While T-cells are present in the spleen, they are predominantly found in the **periarteriolar lymphoid sheath (PALS)**, which is part of the white pulp, rather than the mantle layer. *T-cells are formed in bone marrow* - **Hematopoietic stem cells** in the **bone marrow** are the progenitors of all blood cells, including lymphocytes. - These stem cells differentiate into **lymphoid stem cells**, which then travel to the thymus to become T-cells. *Maturation of T-cells take place in thymus* - **T-cell precursors** migrate from the bone marrow to the **thymus**, where they undergo a complex process of differentiation and selection. - In the thymus, T-cells acquire their **T-cell receptors (TCRs)** and undergo positive and negative selection to ensure they are self-MHC restricted and tolerant to self-antigens. *In lymph nodes, T-cells are found in paracortical area* - The **paracortical area** (or paracortex) of the lymph node is the **T-cell zone**, rich in T-lymphocytes and dendritic cells. - This region is crucial for the interaction between T-cells and antigen-presenting cells, initiating adaptive immune responses.

Q: T cells in lymph node are present in:

Paracortical area. ***Paracortical area*** - The **paracortical area** contains a high concentration of **T cells**, particularly activated T cells in response to antigenic stimulation [1]. - It plays a crucial role in **immune responses**, bridging the cortex and medulla of the lymph node [1]. *Mantle layer* - The **mantle layer** surrounds the follicles and primarily consists of **B cells**, not T cells. - It is involved in the initial immune response but does not contain a significant number of T lymphocytes. *Medullary cords* - **Medullary cords** mainly contain **plasma cells** and macrophages, with very few T cells present. - Their primary function is the secretion of antibodies rather than T cell activation or response. *Cortical follicles* - **Cortical follicles** are primarily sites for **B cell activation and proliferation**. - While they may have some T cells at their periphery, the majority of T cells are located in the paracortical area.

Q: What is the number of variable regions present on each light and heavy chain of an antibody?

1. ***1*** - Each **light chain** and **heavy chain** within an antibody molecule contains **one variable region (V domain)**. - These variable regions are crucial for **antigen binding specificity**, as they combine to form the antigen-binding site. - The variable domain is located at the **N-terminal end** of each chain. *2* - While a complete antibody molecule has **two antigen-binding sites** (bivalent), each formed by pairing of VH and VL domains, individual chains possess only **one variable region each**. - The number '2' refers to the total number of identical binding sites on the intact antibody, not the number of variable regions per chain. *3* - The number **3** does not correspond to the number of variable regions on individual chains. - This might be confused with the **three complementarity-determining regions (CDRs)** present within each variable domain (CDR1, CDR2, CDR3), which are hypervariable loops that directly contact the antigen. *4* - The number **4** is incorrect for variable regions. - This number corresponds to the total number of **polypeptide chains** in a complete IgG antibody (2 heavy + 2 light chains), or the number of **constant domains** in some heavy chain isotypes (IgM, IgE have 4 CH domains).

Q: Prions are best killed by

Autoclaving at 134°C (for 18 minutes). ***Autoclaving at 134°C (for 18 minutes)*** - **Prions** are highly resistant to conventional sterilization methods, and **autoclaving at 134°C for at least 18 minutes** is the **most effective method for sterilizing reusable medical instruments** contaminated with prions. - This high temperature and pressure protocol (WHO/CDC recommended) helps to denature the misfolded protein structure of prions, reducing their infectivity to safe levels. - **In the context of sterilization and disinfection**, this is the best practical method for surgical instruments that cannot be discarded. *Incineration at high temperatures* - **Incineration at 800-1000°C** achieves complete combustion and is **highly effective** at destroying prions. - However, incineration is used only for **single-use disposable items** and prion-contaminated waste, not for reusable surgical instruments. - In the clinical context of sterilization (implied by this topic), autoclaving is the preferred answer as it applies to reusable equipment. *Sodium hypochlorite solution* - **Sodium hypochlorite** (bleach) at **high concentrations** (20,000 ppm or 2% available chlorine) for extended contact times (1+ hours) can inactivate prions. - However, it is **corrosive to instruments**, damages tissue samples, and requires precise concentration and exposure conditions, making it less practical than autoclaving. *5% formalin solution* - Formalin is **not effective at inactivating prions**; it can actually **preserve and stabilize** prion infectivity. - Formalin cross-links proteins and preserves tissue morphology but does not reliably break down the highly stable **beta-sheet structures** characteristic of prions.

Q: Which of the following is true about Hepatitis A virus?

Common cause of hepatitis in children. ***Common cause of hepatitis in children*** - **Hepatitis A virus (HAV)** infection is often acquired in childhood, particularly in areas with poor sanitation, and many infections are **asymptomatic** or mild in children [1]. - Due to their developing immune systems and often exposure in daycare or school settings, children are a highly susceptible population for HAV transmission [1]. *Causes cirrhosis* - **HAV infection** is an **acute self-limiting illness** and typically does not lead to chronic liver disease or cirrhosis [1]. - **Cirrhosis** is primarily associated with chronic viral hepatitis (e.g., HBV, HCV), alcohol-related liver disease, or certain autoimmune conditions. *Helps HDV replication* - **Hepatitis D virus (HDV)** is a **defective virus** that requires the presence of **Hepatitis B virus (HBV)** surface antigen (HBsAg) for its replication and assembly [1]. - **HAV** has no role in the replication or pathogenesis of **HDV** [1]. *Causes chronic hepatitis* - **HAV infection** results in an **acute inflammatory response** in the liver that resolves spontaneously in most cases [1]. - Unlike **HBV** and **HCV**, **HAV** does not establish a persistent infection and, therefore, does not cause chronic hepatitis [1].

Q: Macrophage tropic strains of HIV use which co-receptor?

CCR5. ***CCR5*** - **Macrophage-tropic** HIV strains, also known as **R5 strains**, primarily use the **CCR5 co-receptor** to enter target cells. - These strains are typically involved in the **initial infection** and transmission of HIV. - CCR5-tropic viruses are usually the **predominant strains transmitted** during sexual transmission. *CXCR4* - **T-cell-tropic** HIV strains, or **X4 strains**, preferentially utilize the **CXCR4 co-receptor** for cell entry. - These strains are associated with a **more rapid decline in CD4+ T-cell counts** during later stages of HIV infection. - Emergence of X4 strains is linked to **disease progression**. *CCR3* - While a chemokine receptor, **CCR3** is not a primary co-receptor used by common HIV strains for entry into macrophages or T cells. - CCR3 is primarily involved in **eosinophil chemotaxis** and allergic responses. *CCR2* - **CCR2** is another chemokine receptor but is **not a major co-receptor** for HIV entry. - While some laboratory-adapted strains may show minor usage, it is not clinically significant for macrophage-tropic HIV strains.

Q: How many segments of RNA does the Influenza virus have?

8 segments of single-stranded RNA. ***8 segments of single-stranded RNA*** - The **Influenza virus** is characterized by its segmented genome, which consists of **eight distinct negative-sense single-stranded RNA (ssRNA)** molecules. - This segmentation is crucial for its high mutation rate and ability to undergo **antigenic shift** and **antigenic drift**, leading to new strains. *5 segments of single-stranded RNA* - This option is incorrect because the Influenza virus specifically has **eight segments**, not five. - While it is a single-stranded RNA virus, the number of segments is a key characteristic. *8 segments of double-stranded DNA* - This option is incorrect as Influenza is an **RNA virus**, not a DNA virus, and its genetic material is single-stranded, not double-stranded. - No known influenza viruses have a **double-stranded DNA genome**. *8 segments of single-stranded DNA* - This option is incorrect because Influenza is an **RNA virus**, not a DNA virus. - Its genetic material is composed of **RNA**, specifically negative-sense single-stranded RNA.

Q: Which gene of the hepatitis B virus has the longest coding sequence?

P gene. ***P gene*** - The **P gene** (polymerase gene) encodes the viral **reverse transcriptase**, which is crucial for replicating the HBV genome. - This enzyme is very large and complex, requiring the **longest coding sequence** to accommodate all its functional domains. *X gene* - The **X gene** encodes the **HBx protein**, which is a transcriptional transactivator and plays a role in hepatocarcinogenesis. - It has a relatively **short coding sequence** compared to the P gene. *S gene* - The **S gene** encodes the **surface antigens (HBsAg)**, which are involved in viral entry and immune evasion. - It has a **shorter coding sequence** than the P gene, as it primarily codes for structural proteins. *C gene* - The **C gene** encodes the **core protein (HBcAg)**, which forms the viral nucleocapsid, and the **HBeAg**. - Its coding sequence is also **shorter** than that of the P gene, reflecting its role in structural and regulatory functions.

Q: Which of the following medications is relevant in the management of prostatic carcinoma?

Finasteride. ***Finasteride*** - **Finasteride** is a **5α-reductase inhibitor** that blocks the conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone (DHT), which is crucial for prostate growth and development. - It is used in the **chemoprevention of prostatic carcinoma** in high-risk individuals, as demonstrated by the **Prostate Cancer Prevention Trial (PCPT)**, which showed a **25% reduction in prostate cancer risk**. - While finasteride is primarily used for **benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)** and **androgenetic alopecia**, its role in reducing prostate cancer risk makes it relevant in prostatic carcinoma management. - It is the only medication among the options with established relevance to prostate cancer. *Danazol* - **Danazol** is an attenuated androgen used primarily for **endometriosis**, **fibrocystic breast disease**, and **hereditary angioedema**. - It suppresses the pituitary-ovarian axis and has **no role in prostatic carcinoma management**. *Clomiphene* - **Clomiphene** is a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) used to induce **ovulation in women** with infertility. - It stimulates gonadotropin release and is **not applicable to prostatic carcinoma** treatment or management. *None of the options* - This is incorrect because **finasteride has an established role** in prostate cancer chemoprevention and is relevant in the broader management of prostatic conditions including carcinoma risk reduction.

Q: Most common organ involved in air blast injury is?

Ear drum. ***Ear drum*** - The **tympanic membrane (eardrum)** is highly sensitive to changes in pressure, making it the most vulnerable and frequently injured organ during **air blast events**. - Its delicate structure can easily rupture due to the sudden, immense pressure wave. *Stomach* - While blast injuries can affect the gastrointestinal tract, causing conditions like **bowel perforation**, the stomach is less commonly and directly impacted than the eardrum. - Gastrointestinal injury usually results from a combination of **blast waves** and secondary effects like **fragmentation**. *Eye* - Eye injuries from blasts often involve **foreign bodies**, **ocular trauma**, or **thermal burns**, but direct **barotrauma** to the eye itself is less common than eardrum rupture. - The eye is somewhat protected by the bony orbit, offering a degree of shielding from direct blast effects. *Lung* - **Blast lung injury** is a serious, life-threatening condition involving pulmonary contusions, hemorrhage, and rupture of alveoli. - While significant, it is generally considered less frequent than eardrum perforation in overall blast injury cases.

Question 1

All are true regarding the development of T-cells, except?

Accepted Answer

T-cells are located in mantle layer of spleen

Answer

T-cells are formed in bone marrow

Answer

In lymph nodes, T-cells are found in paracortical area

Answer

Maturation of T-cells take place in thymus

Question 2

T cells in lymph node are present in:

Accepted Answer

Paracortical area

Answer

Mantle layer

Answer

Medullary cords

Answer

Cortical follicles

Question 3

What is the number of variable regions present on each light and heavy chain of an antibody?

Accepted Answer

1

Answer

2

Answer

3

Answer

4

Question 4

Prions are best killed by

Accepted Answer

Autoclaving at 134°C (for 18 minutes)

Answer

Incineration at high temperatures

Answer

5% formalin solution

Answer

Sodium hypochlorite solution

Question 5

Which of the following is true about Hepatitis A virus?

Accepted Answer

Common cause of hepatitis in children

Answer

Causes chronic hepatitis

Answer

Helps HDV replication

Answer

Causes cirrhosis

Question 6

Macrophage tropic strains of HIV use which co-receptor?

Accepted Answer

CCR5

Answer

CXCR4

Answer

CCR3

Answer

CCR2

Question 7

How many segments of RNA does the Influenza virus have?

Accepted Answer

8 segments of single-stranded RNA

Answer

5 segments of single-stranded RNA

Answer

8 segments of double-stranded DNA

Answer

8 segments of single-stranded DNA

Question 8

Which gene of the hepatitis B virus has the longest coding sequence?

Accepted Answer

P gene

Answer

X gene

Answer

S gene

Answer

C gene

Question 9

Which of the following medications is relevant in the management of prostatic carcinoma?

Accepted Answer

Finasteride

Answer

Clomiphene

Answer

None of the options

Answer

Danazol

Question 10

Most common organ involved in air blast injury is?

Accepted Answer

Ear drum

Answer

Stomach

Answer

Eye

Answer

Lung

NEET-PG 2013

Anatomy

Biochemistry

Microbiology

Pharmacology

Surgery