Community Medicine
8 questionsThe international quarantine period for yellow fever as approved by the Government of India is ?
Based on the type of life cycle, zoonoses are classified into all of the following except -
All of the following are anthropozoonosis except
To achieve neonatal tetanus elimination, the incidence of neonatal tetanus per 1000 live births should be reduced to less than:
Which day is not included in the pre-exposure prophylaxis dose schedule for the rabies vaccine?
Most effective preventive measure against rabies
In which condition is a night blood survey performed?
Which of the following diseases is not covered under the Integrated Disease Surveillance Project (IDSP)?
NEET-PG 2013 - Community Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 621: The international quarantine period for yellow fever as approved by the Government of India is ?
- A. 6 days (Correct Answer)
- B. 9 days
- C. 10 days
- D. 12 days
Explanation: ***6 days*** - The **incubation period** for yellow fever is typically 3-6 days, and the 6-day quarantine period is internationally accepted to cover this range. - This period is established to prevent the importation and spread of the disease by ensuring that individuals arriving from endemic areas do not develop symptoms after arrival. *9 days* - This duration is **longer than the internationally recognized incubation period** for yellow fever and is not the standard quarantine period. - Implementing a 9-day quarantine would be excessive and not based on the typical disease progression. *10 days* - A 10-day quarantine period is also **not the standard** for yellow fever as approved by international health regulations or by the Government of India. - While some diseases may require a 10-day quarantine, yellow fever's incubation period makes 6 days sufficient. *12 days* - A 12-day quarantine is **significantly longer** than necessary for yellow fever, as virtually all cases would manifest symptoms within the first 6 days. - This period is typically associated with diseases with much longer incubation periods, which is not the case for yellow fever.
Question 622: Based on the type of life cycle, zoonoses are classified into all of the following except -
- A. Cyclo-zoonoses
- B. Anthropozoonoses (Correct Answer)
- C. Sporozoonoses
- D. Meta-zoonoses
Explanation: ***Anthropozoonoses*** - This is **NOT a life cycle-based classification** of zoonoses. - It describes the **direction of transmission** (animals to humans), not the complexity or types of hosts required in the parasite's life cycle. - While a valid classification of zoonoses, it is based on **transmission pattern**, not life cycle characteristics. *Cyclo-zoonoses* - These are zoonoses that require **more than one vertebrate host species** to complete their life cycle, but **no invertebrate host** is involved. - This IS a life cycle-based classification. - Examples include **taeniasis** (tapeworm infections) where the parasite cycles between humans and livestock. *Meta-zoonoses* - These zoonoses require **both vertebrate and invertebrate hosts** to complete their life cycle. - This IS a life cycle-based classification. - The **invertebrate host** acts as an essential part of the life cycle for maturation or multiplication of the pathogen (e.g., **arboviruses** transmitted by mosquitoes, **plague** via fleas). *Sporozoonoses* - While this term is **not part of the standard WHO classification** of zoonoses by life cycle, the prefix "sporo-" refers to **spore-forming stages** in parasitic life cycles. - The standard WHO classification includes: **Orthozoonoses** (direct), **Cyclozoonoses**, **Metazoonoses**, and **Saprozoonoses** (requiring inanimate environment). - However, this term relates to life cycle characteristics (spore stages), not transmission direction.
Question 623: All of the following are anthropozoonosis except
- A. Rabies
- B. Plague
- C. Anthrax
- D. Schistosomiasis (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Schistosomiasis*** - This is a **human-to-human** disease, even though it involves an intermediate **snail host**. - Its life cycle does not involve transmission of pathogens from vertebrate animals to humans. *Rabies* - Rabies is a classic **anthropozoonosis**, transmitted to humans primarily through the saliva of infected animals, most commonly **dogs** and **bats**. - It involves a pathogen (rabies virus) that cycles between animals and can be transmitted to humans. *Plague* - Plague is an **anthropozoonosis** caused by *Yersinia pestis*, typically transmitted from **rodents** (e.g., rats) to humans via flea bites. - The disease maintains a natural reservoir in wild rodent populations, making it a prime example of animal-to-human transmission. *Anthrax* - Anthrax is an **anthropozoonosis** caused by *Bacillus anthracis*, transmitted to humans from infected **livestock** (e.g., cattle, sheep). - Humans usually acquire the infection through contact with infected animals or their products, or by inhaling spores.
Question 624: To achieve neonatal tetanus elimination, the incidence of neonatal tetanus per 1000 live births should be reduced to less than:
- A. 0.1
- B. 0.5
- C. 1.0 (Correct Answer)
- D. 0.2
Explanation: ***1.0*** - The international target for **neonatal tetanus elimination (NTE)** as defined by WHO/UNICEF is an incidence rate of **less than 1 case per 1,000 live births per year** in every district of a country. - This is the globally recognized threshold for declaring that neonatal tetanus has been eliminated as a public health problem. - Countries achieving this target at the district level are considered to have achieved NTE. *0.1* - While 0.1 per 1,000 live births represents an extremely low incidence, this is not the WHO-defined threshold for **neonatal tetanus elimination**. - The elimination target is less stringent at <1 per 1,000 live births, making disease control achievable while still representing a major public health success. *0.2* - An incidence of 0.2 per 1,000 live births, though very low, is not the internationally recognized threshold for **neonatal tetanus elimination**. - The established WHO/UNICEF target is <1 per 1,000 live births in every district. *0.5* - An incidence of 0.5 per 1,000 live births indicates excellent control of neonatal tetanus but is not the specific cut-off value. - The WHO criterion for elimination is less than 1 case per 1,000 live births per year at the district level.
Question 625: Which day is not included in the pre-exposure prophylaxis dose schedule for the rabies vaccine?
- A. Day 0
- B. Day 7
- C. Day 28
- D. Day 3 (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Day 3*** - The standard pre-exposure prophylaxis (PrEP) schedule for rabies vaccine typically involves three doses given on **Day 0, Day 7, and Day 21 or 28**. - A dose on Day 3 is **not part of the standard recommended PrEP schedule**. *Day 0* - This is the **initial dose** in the pre-exposure prophylaxis series for rabies. - It marks the beginning of the vaccination schedule to build immunity. *Day 7* - This is the **second dose** in the pre-exposure prophylaxis series for rabies. - It follows the initial dose and is crucial for developing a robust immune response. *Day 28* - This dose, along with Day 21, can be the **final dose** in the pre-exposure prophylaxis series for rabies, depending on the specific regimen used. - It completes the primary vaccination course to ensure long-lasting protection.
Question 626: Most effective preventive measure against rabies
- A. Heat
- B. Humidity
- C. Avoiding contact with infected animals and vaccination (Correct Answer)
- D. None of the options
Explanation: ***Avoiding contact with infected animals and vaccination*** ✓ - The most effective preventive measure against rabies is to **avoid contact with potentially infected animals**, especially wild animals and unvaccinated domestic animals. - **Vaccination** (pre-exposure prophylaxis) is crucial for individuals at high risk of exposure (veterinarians, animal handlers, laboratory workers) and for domestic animals, forming the cornerstone of rabies prevention. - Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) with immunoglobulin and vaccine series is highly effective when administered promptly after exposure. *Heat* - While high temperatures can inactivate the rabies virus in a laboratory setting, it is **not a practical or effective preventive measure** against rabies in real-world scenarios. - The virus is transmitted through bites, scratches, and mucous membrane contact with infected saliva; environmental heat does not prevent transmission or infection. *Humidity* - **Humidity does not play a significant role** in the prevention or transmission of rabies. - The rabies virus is labile outside of a host and does not survive long in the environment, regardless of humidity levels. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because there are highly effective preventive measures against rabies, as detailed in the correct option. - Rabies prevention is well-established through public health interventions (animal vaccination programs, post-exposure prophylaxis) and individual precautions.
Question 627: In which condition is a night blood survey performed?
- A. Lymphatic filariasis (Correct Answer)
- B. Typhoid fever
- C. Malaria infection
- D. Visceral leishmaniasis
Explanation: ***Lymphatic filariasis*** - A **night blood survey** is crucial for diagnosing lymphatic filariasis because the microfilariae of species like *Wuchereria bancrofti* and *Brugia malayi* exhibit **nocturnal periodicity**, meaning they are most abundant in peripheral blood between 10 PM and 2 AM. - Collecting blood at night maximizes the chance of detecting these parasites, which are responsible for the disease. *Typhoid fever* - Diagnosis of **typhoid fever** primarily relies on **blood cultures** taken during the febrile phase, or stool/urine cultures later in the disease. - A night blood survey is not relevant for detecting the causative bacterium, *Salmonella Typhi*. *Malaria infection* - While a **blood smear** is essential for diagnosing malaria, the timing of blood collection is less critical than for filariasis, although peak parasite density can vary. - **Malaria parasites** are typically detected in blood samples taken during symptomatic periods, regardless of specific time of day. *Visceral leishmaniasis* - **Visceral leishmaniasis** is diagnosed by detecting parasites in samples from **bone marrow**, spleen, or lymph nodes, or through serological tests for antibodies. - A night blood survey is not used in the diagnosis of *Leishmania donovani* infection.
Question 628: Which of the following diseases is not covered under the Integrated Disease Surveillance Project (IDSP)?
- A. Tuberculosis
- B. Cholera
- C. Herpes zoster (Correct Answer)
- D. Meningococcal disease
Explanation: ***Herpes zoster*** - **Herpes zoster** (shingles) is not included in the Integrated Disease Surveillance Project (IDSP) as it is neither an epidemic-prone disease nor a notifiable disease under the program. - IDSP focuses on diseases with significant public health impact, epidemic potential, or those requiring immediate public health response. - While herpes zoster can cause morbidity in immunocompromised individuals, it does not pose a widespread public health threat requiring national surveillance. *Tuberculosis* - **Tuberculosis (TB)** is explicitly covered under IDSP as a major notifiable disease due to its high burden in India and significant public health importance. - TB surveillance under IDSP helps monitor disease trends, detect outbreaks, and evaluate the effectiveness of the National Tuberculosis Elimination Programme. - Regular reporting and surveillance are essential for achieving TB elimination goals. *Cholera* - **Cholera** is a priority disease under IDSP as an epidemic-prone disease with potential for rapid outbreaks and high mortality if untreated. - It is part of the core surveillance list due to its ability to cause severe dehydration and waterborne epidemics. - Early detection through IDSP enables timely implementation of control measures including safe water supply and oral rehydration therapy. *Meningococcal disease* - **Meningococcal disease** (acute bacterial meningitis) is covered under IDSP due to its high case fatality rate, epidemic potential, and need for urgent public health response. - Surveillance is critical for early outbreak detection and implementation of preventive measures such as mass vaccination and chemoprophylaxis. - Close monitoring helps identify circulating serotypes and guide vaccination strategies.
Internal Medicine
1 questionsIf a claw hand develops in a patient with Leprosy, what is the classification of the deformity?
NEET-PG 2013 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 621: If a claw hand develops in a patient with Leprosy, what is the classification of the deformity?
- A. Grade 0
- B. Grade I
- C. Grade II (Correct Answer)
- D. Grade III
Explanation: A **claw hand** deformity, characterized by hyperextension of the metacarpophalangeal joints and flexion of the interphalangeal joints, indicates a significant and **visible disability** but the affected part is still functional to a limited degree. In the context of leprosy, this observable and permanent deformity falls under **Grade II** on the WHO disability grading scale, signifying a clear and established disability. This grade indicates **no disability** or deformity related to leprosy. A patient with a claw hand has an obvious physical deformity and functional impairment, thus not fitting this classification. This grade refers to a **detectable impairment** but **no visible deformity**. A claw hand is a clearly visible deformity, making Grade I an inappropriate classification. While Grades are typically 0, I, and II in the WHO disability grading for leprosy, some classifications might refer to severe, non-functional deformities as higher grades. However, Grade II adequately captures **visible and significant deformities** like a claw hand, and a Grade III is not a standard or commonly used classification for a claw hand in leprosy in the WHO system.
Microbiology
1 questionsMaximum density of microfilariae in blood is reported to be between -
NEET-PG 2013 - Microbiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 621: Maximum density of microfilariae in blood is reported to be between -
- A. 9 pm to 11 pm
- B. 11 pm to 2 am (Correct Answer)
- C. 8 pm to 10 pm
- D. 2 am to 5 am
Explanation: ***11 pm to 2 am*** - This period aligns with the **nocturnal periodicity** of *Wuchereria bancrofti* and *Brugia malayi* microfilariae, which are the most common causes of filariasis. - The microfilariae migrate to the **peripheral circulation** during these hours, making it the optimal time for blood smear collection for diagnosis. *9 pm to 11 pm* - While still within the active period for microfilarial migration, the **peak density** is generally observed slightly later. - Blood drawn during this time might show microfilariae, but in lower concentrations compared to the peak. *8 pm to 10 pm* - This timing is generally a little too early to consistently capture the **highest microfilarial load** in nocturnal periodic infections. - The microfilariae are still in the process of migrating from deeper tissues to the peripheral blood. *2 am to 5 am* - By this time, the microfilarial density in the peripheral blood of **nocturnal periodic species** usually starts to decline. - While some microfilariae may still be present, the count would likely be lower than during the earlier peak hours.