Community Medicine
1 questionsWhat is the schedule of intradermal rabies vaccine?
NEET-PG 2013 - Community Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 551: What is the schedule of intradermal rabies vaccine?
- A. 2-2-0-1-0-1
- B. 8-4-4-1-0-1
- C. 2-2-2-0-1-1
- D. 2-0-2-0-1-1 (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***2-0-2-0-1-1*** - This schedule represents the **Thai Red Cross (TRC) regimen** for intradermal rabies vaccination that was standard at the time of this exam (2013). - The numbers indicate the number of vaccine doses administered at different sites: **2 doses on day 0** (bilateral deltoids), **0 doses on day 3**, **2 doses on day 7** (bilateral deltoids), **0 doses on day 14**, **1 dose on day 28**, and **1 dose on day 90**. - This was the **answer expected for NEET 2013** based on the guidelines prevalent at that time. - **Note:** Current WHO guidelines (post-2013) recommend the updated 2-2-2-0-1-1 schedule (4-site ID regimen) which includes doses on days 0, 3, 7, and 28. *2-2-0-1-0-1* - This schedule is **not a recognized** intradermal rabies vaccination protocol. - Does not match any standard WHO-approved regimen for intradermal administration. *2-2-2-0-1-1* - While this may appear incorrect for the 2013 exam context, this schedule actually represents the **current updated Thai Red Cross (4-site ID) regimen** recommended by WHO in recent guidelines. - This regimen provides doses on **days 0, 3, 7, 28, and 90**, which is now the preferred intradermal schedule. - However, for the NEET 2013 exam, the older 2-0-2-0-1-1 schedule was the expected answer. *8-4-4-1-0-1* - This schedule is **not a standard regimen** and involves an impractically high number of doses. - No recognized intradermal rabies protocol uses this many doses on initial days. - Would be **unnecessary and impractical** for effective post-exposure prophylaxis.
Microbiology
7 questionsWhich of the following statements about interleukin-1 is false?
Color of granules in mycetoma caused by Actinomadura pelletierrii -
Which of the following statements about Penicillium marneffei is incorrect?
Which of the following conditions is NOT caused by Aspergillus?
In a patient presenting with respiratory symptoms, acute angled septate hyphae are seen in which of the following fungi?
Which of the following is a cause of Valley fever (desert rheumatism)?
Infective form of Hookworms?
NEET-PG 2013 - Microbiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 551: Which of the following statements about interleukin-1 is false?
- A. IL-1 is an endogenous pyrogen.
- B. The primary source of IL-1 is the monocyte-macrophage system.
- C. IL-1 inhibits IL-2 production by T-cells. (Correct Answer)
- D. IL-1 promotes acute phase protein synthesis in the liver.
Explanation: ***IL-1 inhibits IL-2 production by T-cells*** - This statement is false because **IL-1** actually **enhances the production of IL-2** by T-cells, which is crucial for T-cell proliferation and immune response. - **IL-1 acts synergistically with IL-6 and TNF-α** to promote inflammation and immune cell activation, where IL-2 plays a key role. *The primary source of IL-1 is the monocyte-macrophage system* - This statement is true; **monocytes and macrophages** are the main producers of **IL-1α and IL-1β** upon activation by various stimuli. - Other cells, such as neutrophils, dendritic cells, and endothelial cells, can also produce IL-1, but monocytes and macrophages are the predominant source. *IL-1 is an endogenous pyrogen* - This statement is true; **IL-1** is a potent **endogenous pyrogen** that acts on the hypothalamus to induce fever, a hallmark of the acute phase response. - It triggers prostaglandin synthesis in the hypothalamus, leading to an elevation in the body's thermoregulatory set point. *IL-1 promotes acute phase protein synthesis in the liver* - This statement is true; **IL-1** is a key mediator that stimulates **hepatocytes** to produce **acute phase proteins**, such as C-reactive protein and serum amyloid A. - This hepatic response is part of the innate immune system's effort to control infection and inflammation.
Question 552: Color of granules in mycetoma caused by Actinomadura pelletierrii -
- A. Black
- B. Yellow
- C. Red (Correct Answer)
- D. Brown
Explanation: ***Red*** - *Actinomadura pelletierrii* is a common cause of **actinomycetoma** and is characterized by producing **red granules** in the lesions. - The color of these granules is a key diagnostic feature, helping differentiate it from other causes of mycetoma. *Black* - **Black granules** are typically associated with **eumycetoma** caused by **dematiaceous fungi** such as *Madurella mycetomatis*. - This color indicates the presence of **melanin**, a pigment produced by these fungal species. *Yellow* - **Yellow granules** are commonly seen in actinomycetoma caused by organisms such as *Nocardia brasiliensis* or sometimes *Actinomadura madurae*. - This color helps differentiate these specific actinomycetes from other types that produce different granule colors. *Brown* - While varying shades of color can occur, **brown granules** are not the characteristic color produced by *Actinomadura pelletierrii*. - Some *Streptomyces* species or certain eumycetoma agents can occasionally produce brownish granules, but red is specific for *A. pelletierrii*.
Question 553: Which of the following statements about Penicillium marneffei is incorrect?
- A. Forms black colonies (Correct Answer)
- B. Is a dimorphic fungus
- C. Amphotericin B is used for treatment
- D. Causes severe infections in immunocompromised patients
Explanation: ***Forms black colonies*** - *Penicillium marneffei* typically forms colonies that are often **reddish-beige** or **pigmented red-diffusible**, not black. - The production of a characteristic **red-to-burgundy pigment** is a key identifying feature of this fungus, especially in culture. *Is a dimorphic fungus* - This statement is correct. *Penicillium marneffei* is a **thermally dimorphic fungus**, meaning it grows as a mould at 25°C (room temperature) and as yeast-like cells at 37°C (body temperature). - This dimorphism is crucial for its pathogenesis and identification. *Amphotericin B is used for treatment* - This statement is correct. **Amphotericin B** is a commonly used antifungal agent for the treatment of severe *Penicillium marneffei* infections, particularly in immunocompromised patients. - It is often followed by a maintenance regimen with an azole antifungal like itraconazole. *Causes severe infections in immunocompromised patients* - This statement is correct. *Penicillium marneffei* is an **opportunistic pathogen** that primarily causes severe, disseminated infections in individuals with compromised immune systems, especially those with HIV/AIDS. - Endemic regions include Southeast Asia, where it is a leading cause of systemic mycosis in HIV-positive patients.
Question 554: Which of the following conditions is NOT caused by Aspergillus?
- A. Otomycosis
- B. Dermatophytosis (Correct Answer)
- C. Allergic sinusitis
- D. Bronchopulmonary allergy
Explanation: ***Dermatophytosis*** - This condition is caused by **dermatophytes** (e.g., *Trichophyton*, *Microsporum*, *Epidermophyton*), which are a specific group of fungi that metabolize keratin. - *Aspergillus* species are generally **opportunistic molds** but do not typically cause dermatophytosis, which is a superficial fungal infection of the skin, hair, or nails. *Otomycosis* - **Otomycosis** is a fungal infection of the external ear canal, and *Aspergillus* species are a common cause, particularly *Aspergillus niger*. - It can lead to ear pain, discharge, itching, and hearing impairment. *Allergic sinusitis* - **Allergic fungal sinusitis (AFS)** is a common form of fungal sinusitis where *Aspergillus* species are significant contributors, often leading to a thick, tenacious allergic mucin. - This condition is an IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reaction to the fungal elements in the nasal and sinus cavities. *Bronchopulmonary allergy* - **Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA)** is a hypersensitivity reaction to *Aspergillus fumigatus* antigens that colonize the airways, particularly in individuals with asthma or cystic fibrosis. - It results in recurrent episodes of wheezing, cough, and transient pulmonary infiltrates, and can lead to bronchiectasis if left untreated.
Question 555: In a patient presenting with respiratory symptoms, acute angled septate hyphae are seen in which of the following fungi?
- A. Aspergillus (Correct Answer)
- B. Mucor
- C. Penicillium
- D. Candida
Explanation: ***Aspergillus*** - *Aspergillus* species are characterized by their distinctive **acute-angled (dichotomous) septate hyphae** when observed microscopically in tissue sections or clinical samples. - This morphological feature is crucial for differentiating *Aspergillus* infections, such as **aspergillosis**, from other fungal infections. *Mucor* - *Mucor* (along with *Rhizopus* and *Lichtheimia*) belongs to the Zygomycetes class, which are characterized by **broad, non-septate, ribbon-like hyphae** with irregular branching, not acute-angled septate hyphae. - These fungi are associated with **mucormycosis**, often seen in immunocompromised patients, particularly those with diabetes. *Penicillium* - *Penicillium* is a common mold known for producing penicillin and typically appears as **septate hyphae** but is more often recognized by its branching, brush-like conidiophores (penicilli) in culture rather than a distinct acute-angled septate hyphal morphology in clinical samples causing invasive disease. - While it can cause opportunistic infections, its hyphae are less commonly described as having uniquely acute angles compared to *Aspergillus*. *Candida* - *Candida* species are typically observed as **yeast cells (oval budding forms)**, often forming **pseudohyphae** (elongated yeast cells that remain attached) or true hyphae under specific conditions, but not as acute-angled septate hyphae. - *Candida* is a common cause of superficial and invasive candidiasis, and its microscopic appearance is distinct from filamentous fungi.
Question 556: Which of the following is a cause of Valley fever (desert rheumatism)?
- A. Sporothrix
- B. Cladosporium
- C. Phialophora
- D. Coccidioides (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Coccidioides*** - **Valley fever**, or desert rheumatism, is caused by infection with the dimorphic fungus **Coccidioides**, primarily **Coccidioides immitis** and **Coccidioides posadasii**. - This fungus is endemic to arid and semi-arid regions, especially the **southwestern United States** and parts of Central and South America. *Sporothrix* - **Sporothrix schenckii** causes sporotrichosis, a chronic fungal infection typically involving the skin, subcutaneous tissue, and adjacent lymphatics, often through skin trauma. - It does not cause Valley fever. *Cladosporium* - **Cladosporium** species are ubiquitous molds commonly found in outdoor and indoor environments, often associated with allergic reactions and occasionally superficial infections. - They are not a cause of Valley fever. *Phialophora* - **Phialophora** species are dematiaceous fungi that can cause phaeohyphomycosis, chromoblastomycosis, and eumycetoma, which are subcutaneous or systemic fungal infections. - They are not associated with Valley fever.
Question 557: Infective form of Hookworms?
- A. Egg
- B. Rhabditiform larva
- C. Filariform larva (Correct Answer)
- D. Adult worm
Explanation: ***Filariform larva*** - The **filariform larva (L3)** is the infective stage of hookworms, capable of penetrating intact skin. - Upon penetration, these larvae migrate through the bloodstream to the lungs, then up the bronchial tree to be swallowed, eventually maturing in the intestines. *Egg* - Hookworm **eggs** are passed in the feces of infected individuals and are not infective to humans directly. - They require favorable conditions (warm, moist soil) to embryonate and hatch into rhabditiform larvae. *Rhabditiform larva* - The **rhabditiform larva (L1)** is the first larval stage that hatches from the egg in the soil. - It is a non-infective, free-living stage that feeds on bacteria and molts twice to become the infective filariform larva. *Adult worm* - **Adult worms** reside in the small intestine of the host and are not the infective form. - They attach to the intestinal mucosa and feed on blood, causing the characteristic anemia associated with hookworm infection.
Obstetrics and Gynecology
1 questionsWhich vaccine is contraindicated in pregnancy?
NEET-PG 2013 - Obstetrics and Gynecology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 551: Which vaccine is contraindicated in pregnancy?
- A. Cholera vaccine
- B. Typhoid vaccine
- C. Meningococcal vaccine
- D. Measles vaccine (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Measles vaccine*** - The measles vaccine is a **live attenuated vaccine**, which carries a theoretical risk of causing infection in the fetus. - Live vaccines are generally **contraindicated during pregnancy** due to this potential risk of congenital infection. *Cholera vaccine* - The cholera vaccine is generally considered **safe during pregnancy** if indicated, especially for travel to endemic areas. - While administration in pregnancy should be based on risk-benefit, it is not consistently contraindicated like live vaccines. *Typhoid vaccine* - Both inactivated and live attenuated typhoid vaccines are available; the **inactivated (killed) vaccine** is generally preferred if vaccination is necessary during pregnancy. - The risks of the disease usually outweigh the vaccine risks, and it is not a universal contraindication. *Meningococcal vaccine* - **Meningococcal vaccines** are generally considered safe and can be administered during pregnancy if there is a significant risk of exposure or during outbreaks. - The benefits of maternal and potential fetal protection from meningococcal disease outweigh theoretical risks.
Pharmacology
1 questionsWhich of the following is a tricyclic antidepressant?
NEET-PG 2013 - Pharmacology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 551: Which of the following is a tricyclic antidepressant?
- A. Fluoxetine
- B. Citalopram
- C. Doxepin (Correct Answer)
- D. Venlafaxine
Explanation: ***Doxepin*** - **Doxepin** is a **tricyclic antidepressant (TCA)** that inhibits the reuptake of **serotonin** and **norepinephrine**, and also has significant **histaminergic** and **cholinergic** blocking effects. - TCAs, including doxepin, are commonly used for treating **depression**, **anxiety**, and certain pain conditions. *Venlafaxine* - **Venlafaxine** is a **serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI)**, not a tricyclic antidepressant. - SNRIs selectively block the reuptake of both **serotonin** and **norepinephrine**, but lack the broad receptor affinity of TCAs. *Fluoxetine* - **Fluoxetine** is a **selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI)**, which specifically targets serotonin reuptake. - SSRIs are generally considered a first-line treatment for depression due to a more favorable side effect profile compared to TCAs. *Citalopram* - **Citalopram** is also a **selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI)**, much like fluoxetine. - It works by increasing the levels of **serotonin** in the brain by blocking its reuptake, differentiating it from tricyclic antidepressants.