NEET-PG 2013 Practice Questions

Q: Indira Gandhi Matritva Sahyog Yojana is targeted at which age group?

19 years and above. ***19 years and above*** - The **Indira Gandhi Matritva Sahyog Yojana (IGMSY)**, now known as the **Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana (PMMVY)**, is a **conditional cash transfer scheme** for pregnant and lactating women. - Eligibility for the scheme generally applies to women aged **19 years and above** for their first live birth. *Above 65 years old* - This age group is typically associated with schemes targeting **senior citizens** or those needing geriatric care, not maternal benefits. - The **Indira Gandhi Matritva Sahyog Yojana** focuses on reproductive age and maternal health. *Above 50 years old* - Women above 50 years old are generally past their child-bearing age, making them largely irrelevant for a **maternity benefit scheme**. - This age group may be eligible for different types of social security or health schemes. *Above 30 years old* - While women above 30 years old can be pregnant and benefit from the scheme, the eligibility criteria start earlier, at **19 years and above**. - Stating "above 30 years old" would exclude a significant portion of eligible beneficiaries in their early reproductive years.

Q: Cone of light focuses on which quadrant of tympanic membrane?

Anteroinferior. ***Anteroinferior*** - The **cone of light** (or light reflex) is a characteristic triangular reflection of the otoscope's light, normally visible in the **anteroinferior quadrant** of a healthy tympanic membrane. - Its presence indicates a **healthy, intact eardrum** with normal tension and transparency; its absence or distortion can suggest pathology. *Posteroinferior* - While part of the tympanic membrane, the **posteroinferior quadrant** does not normally exhibit the focused cone of light. - This area is more often associated with the **round window niche** on its medial aspect in relation to the middle ear. *Anterosuperior* - The **anterosuperior quadrant** is located above the handle of the malleus and does not show the cone of light reflection. - This area contains the **anterior malleolar fold** and part of the **pars flaccida** (attic region). *Posterosuperior* - The **posterosuperior quadrant** is also not the usual site for the cone of light. - This area is relevant for the proximity to the **facial nerve** and structures like the **long process of the incus**.

Q: Which of the following conditions is least commonly associated with Pneumocystis carinii in AIDS?

Otic polypoid mass. ***Otic polypoid mass*** - While *Pneumocystis jirovecii* (formerly *carinii*) can cause **extrapulmonary disease** in immunocompromised patients, an **otic polypoid mass** is an extremely rare and atypical presentation. - Extrapulmonary manifestations usually involve organs with rich vascular supply, but ear involvement in this form is not a characteristic feature. *Pneumonia* - **Pneumocystis pneumonia (PCP)** is the **most common opportunistic infection** and AIDS-defining illness caused by *Pneumocystis jirovecii* in individuals with AIDS [1]. - It typically manifests as **fever, cough, and dyspnea** with characteristic imaging findings [1]. *Ophthalmic choroid lesion* - **Choroid lesions** due to *Pneumocystis jirovecii* are a recognized, albeit less common, **extrapulmonary manifestation** in immunocompromised patients, particularly those with AIDS. - These lesions are usually **asymptomatic** and discovered incidentally on funduscopic examination. *Meningitis* - Although *Pneumocystis jirovecii* causing **meningitis** is rare, it has been reported in severely immunocompromised individuals with AIDS, often as part of disseminated disease. - Central nervous system involvement signifies **widespread dissemination** and advanced immunosuppression.

Q: What is the commonly used percentage of glutaraldehyde for high-level disinfection in healthcare settings?

2%. ***2%*** - A **2% concentration of glutaraldehyde** is the most common and effective formulation used for **high-level disinfection** of heat-sensitive medical instruments. - This concentration achieves sporicidal activity after prolonged exposure and is effective against a broad spectrum of microorganisms including bacteria, viruses, and fungi. *1%* - A **1% concentration of glutaraldehyde** is generally considered too low for reliable **high-level disinfection** in healthcare settings. - While it may have some antimicrobial activity, it typically does not meet the necessary efficacy standards for disinfecting critical or semi-critical medical devices. *3%* - While a **3% concentration of glutaraldehyde** can be effective for disinfection, it is not the most commonly used, and the increased concentration can lead to **higher toxicity** and potential for skin and respiratory irritation for healthcare workers. - The slight increase in efficacy over 2% often does not outweigh the increased risks and cost associated with its use. *4%* - A **4% concentration of glutaraldehyde** is generally considered unnecessarily high for routine **high-level disinfection** and is not commonly used in clinical practice. - This higher concentration significantly increases the risk of **toxicity and occupational exposure issues**, with little additional benefit in terms of disinfection efficacy compared to 2%.

Q: Who discovered the bacterium Mycobacterium tuberculosis, which causes tuberculosis?

Robert Koch. ***Robert Koch*** - **Robert Koch** discovered the bacterium *Mycobacterium tuberculosis* in **1882**, identifying its role as the causative agent of tuberculosis. - His work was crucial in establishing the germ theory of disease and earned him the Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine in 1905. *Louis Pasteur* - **Louis Pasteur** was a pioneer in microbiology, known for his work on **pasteurization**, **vaccinations** (e.g., rabies and anthrax), and disproving spontaneous generation. - While he made significant contributions to understanding infectious diseases, he did not discover *Mycobacterium tuberculosis*. *Lister* - **Joseph Lister** was a British surgeon who revolutionized surgery by introducing **antiseptic techniques** using carbolic acid to prevent infections. - His contributions were fundamental to reducing mortality rates from surgical infections, but he did not discover the tuberculosis bacterium. *Jenner* - **Edward Jenner** is famous for developing the **smallpox vaccine**, which was a groundbreaking achievement in immunology and public health. - His work, though vital for preventing infectious diseases, predates and is unrelated to the discovery of *Mycobacterium tuberculosis*.

Q: Who discovered the bacterium Treponema pallidum?

Fritz Schaudinn and Erich Hoffmann. ***Fritz Schaudinn and Erich Hoffmann*** - **Fritz Schaudinn** was a German zoologist, and **Erich Hoffmann** was a German dermatologist; they jointly discovered **Treponema pallidum** in **1905**. - Their discovery of the spirochete was a crucial step in understanding the etiology of **syphilis**. *Robert Koch* - **Robert Koch** is renowned for identifying the causative agents of **tuberculosis**, **cholera**, and **anthrax**. - He developed Koch's postulates, a fundamental set of criteria for establishing the causal relationship between a microbe and a disease. *Twort* - **Frederick Twort** was a British bacteriologist who is credited with the discovery of **bacteriophages** in **1915**. - His work involved examining transparent areas in bacterial cultures, leading to the identification of lytic viruses that infect bacteria. *Ellerman* - **Vilhelm Ellerman** was a Danish pathologist known for his work in **hematology** and **virology**. - Alongside **Olaf Bang**, he demonstrated that avian leukemia (erythroleukemia) could be transmitted by a filterable agent, indicating a viral etiology for some cancers.

Q: Which anticoagulant is used when blood is sent for blood culture?

SPS. ***SPS*** - **SPS (Sodium Polyanethol Sulfonate)** is the preferred anticoagulant for blood cultures because it inhibits phagocytosis and complement activation, allowing microorganisms to survive and grow. - It also neutralizes the bactericidal effect of aminoglycoside antibiotics, which might be present in the patient's blood. *Sodium citrate* - **Sodium citrate** works by binding to calcium ions, preventing blood coagulation, and is typically used for coagulation studies. - It is not suitable for blood cultures as it does not have the anti-phagocytic or antibiotic-neutralizing properties of SPS. *EDTA* - **EDTA (Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid)** is a strong chelator of calcium and is primarily used for hematology tests like complete blood counts (CBC) as it preserves cell morphology. - It can be toxic to some bacteria and would inhibit microbial growth, making it unsuitable for blood cultures. *Oxalate* - Various **oxalates** (e.g., potassium oxalate) also act as anticoagulants by precipitating calcium, and are commonly found in tubes for glucose testing when combined with a glycolytic inhibitor. - Oxalates are generally unsuitable for blood cultures because they can inhibit the growth of certain microorganisms.

Q: Amoebic liver abscess can be diagnosed by demonstrating-

Trophozoites in the pus. ***Trophozoites in the pus*** - **Amoebic liver abscesses** are caused by the invasive **trophozoite stage** of *Entamoeba histolytica*. - Demonstrating **trophozoites** in the characteristic **'anchovy paste' pus** aspirated from the abscess cavity is diagnostic. *Cysts in the pus* - **Cysts** are the **infective stage** of *Entamoeba histolytica* and are typically found in the **feces**, not in an abscess. - Cysts are responsible for transmission and survival outside the host, but they do not cause invasive disease. *Cysts in the liver* - The disease in the liver is caused by **trophozoites**, which invade the intestinal wall and then spread to the liver. - **Cysts** are never found within the liver parenchyma or abscesses. *Trophozoites in the feces* - While **trophozoites** can be found in the feces during acute amoebic dysentery, their presence alone does not confirm a liver abscess. - Furthermore, **trophozoites** are fragile and often difficult to detect in stool samples, especially once the stool has cooled.

Q: Which of the following statements about malaria transmission is correct?

Individuals harboring gametocytes can transmit malaria.. ***Individuals harboring gametocytes can transmit malaria.*** - **Gametocytes** are the sexual stage of the malaria parasite that circulate in the human bloodstream and are infectious to mosquitos. - When an *Anopheles* mosquito feeds on an infected human, it ingests these gametocytes, allowing the parasite's life cycle to continue in the mosquito vector, leading to transmission. *P. vivax always completely fills the infected RBC with schizonts.* - While *P. vivax* does infect **reticulocytes** (young RBCs) and can enlarge them, the **schizonts** typically occupy a significant portion but not always completely fill the host cell. - The infected RBCs are often enlarged to about 1.5 to 2 times their normal size and contain numerous **Schüffner's dots**. *Malaria can only be transmitted through blood transfusions.* - The primary mode of malaria transmission is through the bite of an **infected female *Anopheles* mosquito**. - While **blood transfusions** can transmit malaria, it is a less common and secondary route compared to vector-borne transmission. *All stages of P. falciparum are commonly seen in peripheral blood smears.* - In *P. falciparum* infections, only the **ring forms** and **gametocytes** are commonly observed in the peripheral blood smear. - The more mature asexual stages (trophozoites and schizonts) typically sequester in the capillaries of internal organs, where they are not readily visible in peripheral circulation.

Q: Pseudomembranous colitis, all are true except:

Blood in stools is a common feature. ***Blood in stools is a common feature*** - While diarrhea is a hallmark of **pseudomembranous colitis**, **bloody stools** are uncommon and, if present, suggest severe disease or an alternative diagnosis [1]. - The typical presentation involves **watery diarrhea**, abdominal cramps, and fever, not usually overt bleeding [1]. *Toxin A is responsible for clinical manifestation* - **Toxin A (TcdA)** is one of the primary exotoxins produced by *Clostridioides difficile* and contributes significantly to the **inflammation** and fluid secretion seen in pseudomembranous colitis. - It acts as an **enterotoxin**, causing fluid secretion and mucosal damage in the colon [1]. *Summit lesions are early histopathological findings* - **Summit lesions**, also known as "summit pseudomembranes" or **"volcano lesions"**, refer to characteristic histological findings where inflammatory exudates effuse from the tips of damaged crypts. - These are typical early findings in pseudomembranous colitis, demonstrating the focal nature of the **mucosal injury**. *Toxin B is responsible for clinical manifestation* - **Toxin B (TcdB)** is another key exotoxin produced by *Clostridioides difficile*, and it is considered even more **cytotoxic** than Toxin A [1]. - It causes significant **cell damage** and **apoptosis**, playing a crucial role in the development of the pseudomembranes and clinical symptoms [1].

Question 1

Indira Gandhi Matritva Sahyog Yojana is targeted at which age group?

Accepted Answer

19 years and above

Answer

Above 65 years old

Answer

Above 50 years old

Answer

Above 30 years old

Question 2

Cone of light focuses on which quadrant of tympanic membrane?

Accepted Answer

Anteroinferior

Answer

Posteroinferior

Answer

Anterosuperior

Answer

Posterosuperior

Question 3

Which of the following conditions is least commonly associated with Pneumocystis carinii in AIDS?

Accepted Answer

Otic polypoid mass

Answer

Meningitis

Answer

Pneumonia

Answer

Ophthalmic choroid lesion

Question 4

What is the commonly used percentage of glutaraldehyde for high-level disinfection in healthcare settings?

Accepted Answer

2%

Answer

1%

Answer

3%

Answer

4%

Question 5

Who discovered the bacterium Mycobacterium tuberculosis, which causes tuberculosis?

Accepted Answer

Robert Koch

Answer

Jenner

Answer

Louis Pasteur

Answer

Lister

Question 6

Who discovered the bacterium Treponema pallidum?

Accepted Answer

Fritz Schaudinn and Erich Hoffmann

Answer

Robert Koch

Answer

Twort

Answer

Ellerman

Question 7

Which anticoagulant is used when blood is sent for blood culture?

Accepted Answer

SPS

Answer

Sodium citrate

Answer

EDTA

Answer

Oxalate

Question 8

Amoebic liver abscess can be diagnosed by demonstrating-

Accepted Answer

Trophozoites in the pus

Answer

Trophozoites in the feces

Answer

Cysts in the pus

Answer

Cysts in the liver

Question 9

Which of the following statements about malaria transmission is correct?

Accepted Answer

Individuals harboring gametocytes can transmit malaria.

Answer

P. vivax always completely fills the infected RBC with schizonts.

Answer

Malaria can only be transmitted through blood transfusions.

Answer

All stages of P. falciparum are commonly seen in peripheral blood smears.

Question 10

Pseudomembranous colitis, all are true except:

Accepted Answer

Blood in stools is a common feature

Answer

Toxin A is responsible for clinical manifestation

Answer

Summit lesions are early histopathological findings

Answer

Toxin B is responsible for clinical manifestation

NEET-PG 2013

Community Medicine

ENT

Internal Medicine

Microbiology

Pathology