Anatomy
1 questionsT cells in lymph node are present in:
NEET-PG 2013 - Anatomy NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 521: T cells in lymph node are present in:
- A. Paracortical area (Correct Answer)
- B. Mantle layer
- C. Medullary cords
- D. Cortical follicles
Explanation: ***Paracortical area*** - The **paracortical area** contains a high concentration of **T cells**, particularly activated T cells in response to antigenic stimulation [1]. - It plays a crucial role in **immune responses**, bridging the cortex and medulla of the lymph node [1]. *Mantle layer* - The **mantle layer** surrounds the follicles and primarily consists of **B cells**, not T cells. - It is involved in the initial immune response but does not contain a significant number of T lymphocytes. *Medullary cords* - **Medullary cords** mainly contain **plasma cells** and macrophages, with very few T cells present. - Their primary function is the secretion of antibodies rather than T cell activation or response. *Cortical follicles* - **Cortical follicles** are primarily sites for **B cell activation and proliferation**. - While they may have some T cells at their periphery, the majority of T cells are located in the paracortical area.
Biochemistry
2 questionsWhich of the following is not an acute phase reactant?
Which immunoglobulin is known to be heat-labile?
NEET-PG 2013 - Biochemistry NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 521: Which of the following is not an acute phase reactant?
- A. C-reactive protein
- B. Haptoglobin
- C. Endothelin (Correct Answer)
- D. Fibrinogen
Explanation: ***Endothelin*** - Endothelin is a **vasoconstrictive peptide** primarily involved in regulating **blood vessel tone** and blood pressure. - While it plays a role in processes like inflammation and tissue repair, it is not synthesized or regulated in the same rapid, systemic manner as a classic acute phase reactant. *C-reactive protein* - **C-reactive protein (CRP)** is a rapidly responding acute phase reactant produced by the liver in response to **inflammation**, infection, and tissue injury. - Its levels can rise dramatically within hours of an inflammatory stimulus and are used as a marker for disease activity. *Haptoglobin* - **Haptoglobin** is an acute phase reactant that binds to free **hemoglobin** released from red blood cells during hemolysis, preventing oxidative damage. - Its levels typically increase during acute inflammation or infection, although it can also decrease with severe hemolysis. *Fibrinogen* - **Fibrinogen** is a critical acute phase protein involved in the **coagulation cascade** and wound healing. - Its concentration increases significantly during acute inflammation, contributing to the elevated **erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)**.
Question 522: Which immunoglobulin is known to be heat-labile?
- A. IgA
- B. IgG
- C. IgM (Correct Answer)
- D. IgE
Explanation: ***IgM*** - **IgM** is known for its **heat lability** and is readily denatured at 56°C within a few minutes. - This characteristic is due to its **pentameric structure** held together by disulfide bonds and J chains, which are sensitive to thermal denaturation. - Heat lability of IgM is clinically important in complement fixation tests and other laboratory assays where heat inactivation is performed. - IgM is the first antibody produced in primary immune response and its heat sensitivity distinguishes it from other immunoglobulins. *IgA* - **IgA** exists in monomeric (serum) and dimeric (secretory) forms and shows moderate stability to heat. - Secretory IgA is relatively stable as it needs to function in harsh mucosal environments, though not as heat-resistant as IgG. - Does not exhibit the pronounced heat lability characteristic of IgM. *IgG* - **IgG** is the most stable immunoglobulin and is highly resistant to heat denaturation. - Can withstand temperatures up to 60-70°C without significant loss of activity. - Its monomeric structure with strong intramolecular bonds provides exceptional thermal stability. - Most abundant antibody in serum and has the longest half-life. *IgE* - **IgE** is actually quite stable to heat and can withstand 56°C for extended periods. - While it has a short half-life in serum (2-3 days), this is due to receptor binding rather than heat instability. - Important in type I hypersensitivity reactions and parasitic infections. - Does not show the characteristic heat lability that defines IgM.
Community Medicine
1 questionsWhich of the following individuals is known for their significant contributions to public health legislation in the 19th century?
NEET-PG 2013 - Community Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 521: Which of the following individuals is known for their significant contributions to public health legislation in the 19th century?
- A. Edwin Chadwick (Correct Answer)
- B. Joseph Lister
- C. William Farr
- D. John Snow
Explanation: ***Edwin Chadwick*** - **Edwin Chadwick** was a central figure in the 19th-century public health movement in Britain, known for advocating for comprehensive sanitary reform. - His most famous work, the **"Report on the Sanitary Condition of the Labouring Population of Great Britain" (1842)**, laid the groundwork for public health legislation, influencing the **Public Health Act of 1848**. *John Snow* - **John Snow** was a physician known for his groundbreaking work in epidemiology, particularly his investigation into the **1854 Broad Street cholera outbreak**. - While his work was crucial for understanding disease transmission, his primary contributions were not in public health legislation but in establishing the **germ theory of disease** and modern epidemiology. *Joseph Lister* - **Joseph Lister** was a surgeon and a pioneer of antiseptic surgery, introducing the use of **carbolic acid** to sterilize instruments and wounds. - His contributions drastically reduced post-operative infections but were focused on surgical practice rather than large-scale public health legislation. *William Farr* - **William Farr** was a prominent Victorian epidemiologist and statistician, considered one of the founders of medical statistics. - He developed systems for **classifying diseases** and collecting vital statistics, which greatly informed public health policy but his direct role in drafting legislation was less prominent than Chadwick's.
Microbiology
3 questionsRosette formation with sheep RBCs (SRBCs) indicates functioning of -
All are true regarding the development of T-cells, except?
What are the changes in the variable region of immunoglobulins?
NEET-PG 2013 - Microbiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 521: Rosette formation with sheep RBCs (SRBCs) indicates functioning of -
- A. T-cells (Correct Answer)
- B. B-cells
- C. Neutrophils
- D. Monocytes
Explanation: ***T-cells*** - **T-cells** possess specific receptors, like **CD2** on their surface, that can bind to ligands on sheep red blood cells (SRBCs). - This binding leads to the formation of characteristic **rosettes**, where SRBCs cluster around the T-lymphocytes, indicating functional T-cells. *B-cells* - **B-cells** primarily function in **humoral immunity** by producing antibodies and do not typically form rosettes with sheep RBCs. - While B-cells have surface receptors, they are not CD2 and thus do not facilitate this specific type of rosette formation. *Neutrophils* - **Neutrophils** are **phagocytic cells** involved in innate immunity, primarily combating bacterial and fungal infections. - They lack the specific surface receptors (like CD2) required to form rosettes with sheep RBCs. *Monocytes* - **Monocytes** are precursors to macrophages and dendritic cells, involved in phagocytosis and antigen presentation. - They do not possess the necessary surface markers to form rosettes with sheep RBCs.
Question 522: All are true regarding the development of T-cells, except?
- A. T-cells are formed in bone marrow
- B. In lymph nodes, T-cells are found in paracortical area
- C. Maturation of T-cells take place in thymus
- D. T-cells are located in mantle layer of spleen (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***T-cells are located in mantle layer of spleen*** - The **mantle layer** (or marginal zone) of the spleen is primarily associated with **B-lymphocytes**, which are involved in antibody production. - While T-cells are present in the spleen, they are predominantly found in the **periarteriolar lymphoid sheath (PALS)**, which is part of the white pulp, rather than the mantle layer. *T-cells are formed in bone marrow* - **Hematopoietic stem cells** in the **bone marrow** are the progenitors of all blood cells, including lymphocytes. - These stem cells differentiate into **lymphoid stem cells**, which then travel to the thymus to become T-cells. *Maturation of T-cells take place in thymus* - **T-cell precursors** migrate from the bone marrow to the **thymus**, where they undergo a complex process of differentiation and selection. - In the thymus, T-cells acquire their **T-cell receptors (TCRs)** and undergo positive and negative selection to ensure they are self-MHC restricted and tolerant to self-antigens. *In lymph nodes, T-cells are found in paracortical area* - The **paracortical area** (or paracortex) of the lymph node is the **T-cell zone**, rich in T-lymphocytes and dendritic cells. - This region is crucial for the interaction between T-cells and antigen-presenting cells, initiating adaptive immune responses.
Question 523: What are the changes in the variable region of immunoglobulins?
- A. Isotype
- B. Epitope
- C. Allotype
- D. Idiotype (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Idiotype*** - **Idiotype** refers to the unique set of antigenic determinants in the **variable region** of an antibody molecule, specifically within the **hypervariable regions (complementarity-determining regions, CDRs)**. - These unique determinants allow antibodies to recognize specific antigens and are generated by the specific **V(D)J gene rearrangements** in B cells. *Isotype* - **Isotype** refers to the constant region of an antibody, determining its class (e.g., **IgG, IgM, IgA, IgD, IgE**). - This region defines the antibody's effector functions and has nothing to do with the antigen-binding variability. *Allotype* - **Allotype** refers to minor genetic variations within the **constant region** of an antibody molecule within a species. - These variations are due to different alleles inherited from parents and are not associated with the variable region that binds to antigens. *Epitope* - An **epitope** is the specific part of an **antigen** that an antibody or T-cell receptor recognizes and binds to. - It is a feature of the antigen, not a change within the variable region of the immunoglobulin itself.
Pediatrics
1 questionsAt what age does clinically significant IgG production begin?
NEET-PG 2013 - Pediatrics NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 521: At what age does clinically significant IgG production begin?
- A. Around 6 months (Correct Answer)
- B. Around 1 year
- C. Around 2 years
- D. Around 3 years
Explanation: ***Around 6 months*** - Maternal IgG levels, which provide **passive immunity**, decrease significantly by 3-6 months of age. - Infants begin to produce their own **clinically significant** levels of IgG around this time, coinciding with the "physiologic nadir" of IgG. *Around 1 year* - While IgG production continues to mature, significant production has already begun by 6 months to replace declining maternal antibodies. - By 1 year, the immune system is more robust, but the initial critical transition occurs earlier. *Around 2 years* - By this age, children generally have a robust adaptive immune response, and the period of vulnerability due to low IgG has passed. - This option is too late for the beginning of clinically significant IgG production. *Around 3 years* - This age is far past the point where children start producing their own significant levels of IgG. - The immune system is well-developed by 3 years, and initial IgG production started much earlier.
Pharmacology
2 questionsWhy do NSAIDs cause gastric ulcers?
Mode of excretion of cyclophosphamide is?
NEET-PG 2013 - Pharmacology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 521: Why do NSAIDs cause gastric ulcers?
- A. They increase gastric acid secretion
- B. They delay gastric emptying
- C. They inhibit the production of protective mucus
- D. They inhibit COX-1 and COX-2 enzymes (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***They inhibit COX-1 and COX-2 enzymes*** - NSAIDs primarily exert their anti-inflammatory effects by inhibiting **cyclooxygenase (COX) enzymes**, specifically COX-1 and COX-2. - While COX-2 inhibition is responsible for anti-inflammatory action, **COX-1 inhibition** reduces the production of protective prostaglandins in the gastric mucosa, leading to a loss of mucosal integrity and an increased risk of ulceration. *They inhibit the production of protective mucus* - While NSAIDs do compromise the gastric mucosal barrier, their primary mechanism is not a direct inhibition of mucus production itself. - Instead, the reduced prostaglandin synthesis indirectly affects the quantity and quality of mucus and bicarbonate, which are crucial for mucosal defense. *They increase gastric acid secretion* - NSAIDs do not directly increase gastric acid secretion; in fact, some studies suggest a mild inhibitory effect. - The main problem is the diminished mucosal protection against the normal levels of gastric acid. *They delay gastric emptying* - Delaying gastric emptying is not a primary mechanism by which NSAIDs cause ulcers. - While some medications can affect gastric motility, this is not the key pathway for NSAID-induced gastropathy.
Question 522: Mode of excretion of cyclophosphamide is?
- A. Lung
- B. Liver
- C. Kidney (Correct Answer)
- D. Skin
Explanation: ***Kidney*** - Cyclophosphamide is a **prodrug** that undergoes metabolism in the liver to its active forms. However, both the parent drug and its active metabolites are primarily **excreted renally**. [1] - Renal excretion means that patients with **renal impairment** may require dose adjustments to prevent drug accumulation and increased toxicity. [3] *Lung* - The lungs are primarily involved in **gas exchange** and the elimination of volatile substances, not non-volatile drugs like cyclophosphamide. - While some drugs can be excreted to a minor extent via the lungs, it is not the primary route for **cyclophosphamide**. *Liver* - The liver is the primary site of **metabolism** for cyclophosphamide, where it is converted into active cytotoxic metabolites. [1], [2] - While metabolites are formed here, the liver is not the main organ for the final **elimination** (excretion) of the drug or its metabolites from the body. *Skin* - The skin's role in drug excretion is generally minimal, mainly involving substances excreted in **sweat**, and is not a significant route for cyclophosphamide. - Excretion via the skin is typically very limited for most drugs and does not play a major role in the elimination of **chemotherapeutic agents** like cyclophosphamide.