Internal Medicine
1 questionsWhich type of arthritis is characterized by the absence of a periosteal reaction?
NEET-PG 2013 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1381: Which type of arthritis is characterized by the absence of a periosteal reaction?
- A. Psoriatic arthritis
- B. Neuropathic arthritis (Correct Answer)
- C. Rheumatoid arthritis
- D. Reactive arthritis
Explanation: ***Neuropathic arthritis*** - **Neuropathic arthritis** (**Charcot joint**) is characterized by progressive joint destruction due to loss of proprioception and pain sensation, leading to severe bone and joint damage without a typical **periosteal reaction**. - The absence of normal protective reflexes results in repetitive microtrauma, often leading to bone resorption and fragmentation rather than new bone formation (periosteal reaction). *Psoriatic arthritis* - **Psoriatic arthritis** often presents with distinctive **periosteal reactions**, particularly at entheses and along the shafts of small bones (e.g., "pencil-in-cup" deformities and fluffy periostitis) [1]. - These periosteal changes are a hallmark of the inflammatory process affecting bone and connective tissues in psoriatic arthritis. *Rheumatoid arthritis* - **Rheumatoid arthritis** primarily involves the synovium, leading to erosions rather than prominent periosteal reactions in early stages [1]. - While periostitis can occur in chronic, destructive rheumatoid arthritis, it is not a primary or characteristic finding compared to other inflammatory arthritides. *Reactive arthritis* - **Reactive arthritis** frequently causes **periosteal reactions**, particularly at entheses (where tendons and ligaments attach to bone) and along the shafts of long bones, often described as "fluffy" periostitis [1]. - These new bone formations are a key radiological feature distinguishing it from other types of inflammatory arthritis.
Obstetrics and Gynecology
1 questionsAt which gestational week does the maximum volume of amniotic fluid occur?
NEET-PG 2013 - Obstetrics and Gynecology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1381: At which gestational week does the maximum volume of amniotic fluid occur?
- A. 32 weeks
- B. 34 weeks
- C. 36 weeks (Correct Answer)
- D. 40 weeks
Explanation: ***36 weeks*** - The volume of **amniotic fluid** gradually increases during pregnancy, reaching its **peak** around **36 weeks** of gestation. - After 36 weeks, the volume of amniotic fluid typically begins to **decrease** as the pregnancy approaches term. *32 weeks* - At 32 weeks, the amniotic fluid volume is still **increasing** and has not yet reached its maximum level. - The fetus is actively growing and contributing to fluid production, but the peak is still several weeks away. *34 weeks* - Although significant, the amniotic fluid volume at 34 weeks has not yet reached its **maximum**. - The volume will continue to rise for another two weeks before plateauing and then declining. *40 weeks* - By 40 weeks, a normal-term pregnancy, the volume of amniotic fluid has typically **decreased** from its peak at 36 weeks. - A declining amniotic fluid volume (oligohydramnios) can be a concern at term if it's too low.
Orthopaedics
6 questionsHalopelvic traction is primarily used for correcting which specific spinal deformity?
What is the purpose of the Insall-Salvati index?
Which condition can lead to the formation of loose bodies in the joint?
Most common site of osteochondritis dissecans?
Windswept deformity is seen in which condition?
What is the generally recommended maximum weight for skeletal traction in adult patients?
NEET-PG 2013 - Orthopaedics NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1381: Halopelvic traction is primarily used for correcting which specific spinal deformity?
- A. Kyphosis (Correct Answer)
- B. Spondylolisthesis
- C. Scoliosis
- D. Spinal stenosis
Explanation: **Kyphosis** * **Halopelvic traction** is a technique specifically designed to apply sustained corrective forces to the spine, making it particularly effective in treating severe **kyphosis**, especially in young patients prior to surgical correction. * It aids in gradually stretching soft tissues and straightening the spinal curvature over time, often used in cases of congenital or severe developmental kyphosis. *Scoliosis* * While traction can be used in some spinal deformities, **scoliosis** (lateral curvature) is more commonly treated with **bracing** or **surgical fusion**, as halopelvic traction is less effective in correcting the rotational component. * Correction of scoliotic curves typically involves forces applied in multiple planes, which halopelvic traction is not ideally suited for. *Spondylolisthesis* * **Spondylolisthesis** involves the **slippage of one vertebra over another**, which is primarily managed through **stabilization** to prevent further slippage. * Halopelvic traction is not indicated as it could potentially exacerbate instability in the presence of vertebral slippage. *Spinal stenosis* * **Spinal stenosis** refers to the **narrowing of the spinal canal**, which compresses nerves and is usually treated with **decompressive surgery** or **conservative management** for pain relief. * Traction methods are generally not used for spinal stenosis as they do not address the underlying anatomical narrowing and may worsen symptoms.
Question 1382: What is the purpose of the Insall-Salvati index?
- A. To measure ankle dorsiflexion range
- B. To assess patellar height and tendon length ratio (Correct Answer)
- C. To evaluate elbow joint stability
- D. To assess wrist bone alignment
Explanation: ***To assess patellar height and tendon length ratio*** - The **Insall-Salvati index** is a radiographic measurement used to determine **patellar height** by comparing the length of the patellar tendon to the greatest diagonal length of the patella. - It helps in diagnosing conditions like **patella alta** (high-riding patella) or **patella baja** (low-riding patella), which can contribute to knee pain and instability. *To evaluate elbow joint stability* - **Elbow joint stability** is typically assessed through clinical examination for ligamentous integrity (e.g., UCL, RCL) and sometimes dynamic imaging, not by the Insall-Salvati index. - The Insall-Salvati index is specific to the **knee joint** and **patellar position**. *To measure ankle dorsiflexion range* - **Ankle dorsiflexion range** is measured clinically using a goniometer or in 3D motion analysis, not with the Insall-Salvati index. - This index is a specialized measurement for the **patellofemoral joint**. *To assess wrist bone alignment* - **Wrist bone alignment** is evaluated using various radiographic measurements such as the scaphoid-lunate angle or carpal height ratio. - The Insall-Salvati index has no application in the assessment of the **wrist**.
Question 1383: Which condition can lead to the formation of loose bodies in the joint?
- A. Rheumatoid arthritis
- B. Ankylosing spondylitis
- C. Osteoarthritis (Correct Answer)
- D. Systemic lupus erythematosus
Explanation: ***Osteoarthritis*** - In **osteoarthritis**, the **degenerative process** of cartilage can lead to fragments breaking off and floating within the joint space, forming **loose bodies**. - These loose bodies, also known as **joint mice**, can cause mechanical symptoms like locking, clicking, or catching in the joint. *Rheumatoid arthritis* - **Rheumatoid arthritis** is an **inflammatory autoimmune disease** primarily affecting the synovium. - While it can cause joint damage, it typically does not lead to the formation of cartilaginous or bony loose bodies. *Ankylosing spondylitis* - **Ankylosing spondylitis** is a **chronic inflammatory disease** primarily affecting the spine and sacroiliac joints. - Its hallmark is new bone formation and fusion of vertebrae, not the formation of loose bodies within the joint. *Systemic lupus erythematosus* - **Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)** is a systemic autoimmune disease that can affect multiple organs, including joints. - While it can cause **non-erosive arthritis**, it does not typically result in the formation of loose bodies.
Question 1384: Most common site of osteochondritis dissecans?
- A. Lateral part of the medial femoral condyle (Correct Answer)
- B. Medial part of the medial femoral condyle
- C. Lateral part of the lateral femoral condyle
- D. Medial part of the lateral femoral condyle
Explanation: ***Lateral part of the medial femoral condyle*** - This is the **most common site** for osteochondritis dissecans in the knee, accounting for about 85% of cases. - The condition involves a localized area of **osteonecrosis and subchondral bone separation** from the epiphysis, typically afflicting this specific load-bearing region. *Medial part of the medial femoral condyle* - This location is **less common** for osteochondritis dissecans compared to the lateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle. - While osteochondral lesions can occur on any part of the condyle, the specific biomechanical stresses make the lateral part more susceptible. *Lateral part of the lateral femoral condyle* - Osteochondritis dissecans is **rarely found** in this location. - The lateral femoral condyle is generally less involved in osteochondritis dissecans of the knee. *Medial part of the lateral femoral condyle* - This site is also an **uncommon location** for osteochondritis dissecans. - The disease has a strong predilection for the medial femoral condyle, particularly its lateral aspect.
Question 1385: Windswept deformity is seen in which condition?
- A. Hyperparathyroidism
- B. Scurvy
- C. Rheumatoid Arthritis
- D. Rickets (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Rickets*** - **Windswept deformity** is characterized by bilateral knee deformities where one knee is in **valgus** and the other is in **varus**. - This condition is caused by a deficiency in **vitamin D**, **calcium**, or **phosphate**, leading to improper bone mineralization and subsequent bone deformities. *Rheumatoid Arthritis* - Rheumatoid arthritis is a **chronic autoimmune inflammatory disease** primarily affecting the synovial joints. - While it can cause joint deformities, they typically involve symmetric joint swelling, pain, and stiffness, with characteristic deformities like **ulnar deviation** or **swan-neck deformities**, rather than windswept deformity. *Hyperparathyroidism* - Hyperparathyroidism leads to excessive production of **parathyroid hormone**, which causes increased bone resorption and elevated blood calcium levels. - It can result in bone fragility, **osteitis fibrosa cystica**, and kidney stones, but it does not cause specific windswept deformity. *Scurvy* - Scurvy results from a severe deficiency of **vitamin C**, which is essential for collagen synthesis. - It presents with symptoms like bleeding gums, poor wound healing, and perifollicular hemorrhages, but it does not typically cause windswept deformity of the knees.
Question 1386: What is the generally recommended maximum weight for skeletal traction in adult patients?
- A. 5 kg
- B. 10 kg
- C. 20 kg
- D. 15 kg (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***15 kg*** - While the specific weight can vary based on the bone and patient, 10-15 kg is generally the **maximum recommended weight for skeletal traction** in adults to avoid complications. - Applying too much weight risks **damage to the bone, soft tissues, and nerves**, as well as potential pin site infections and neurovascular compromise. *5 kg* - This weight is typically more appropriate for **skin traction**, where the pulling force is applied externally to the skin, limiting the amount of weight that can be safely used without causing skin damage. - In skeletal traction, 5 kg is often used for **initial alignment or very tenuous fractures**, but it is generally insufficient for significant reduction or long-term stabilization. *10 kg* - 10 kg is a common starting point or moderate weight used in skeletal traction, particularly for **femur or tibia fractures**. - While often effective, it is not consistently the maximum safe weight, as some situations may allow or require slightly more weight up to 15 kg for optimal reduction. *20 kg* - Applying 20 kg of weight in skeletal traction is generally considered **excessive and dangerous** in most adult applications. - This high amount of weight significantly increases the risk of **pin loosening, osteomyelitis, neurovascular injury, and avascular necrosis**, especially in areas like the cervical spine or tibia.
Pharmacology
1 questionsDepot preparations are administered by ?
NEET-PG 2013 - Pharmacology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1381: Depot preparations are administered by ?
- A. Subcutaneous route
- B. Intravenous route
- C. Intramuscular route
- D. Both subcutaneous and intramuscular route (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Both subcutaneous and intramuscular route*** - **Depot preparations** are designed for **sustained release** of medication over an extended period - This is achieved by forming a 'depot' in the tissue, often facilitated by a viscous vehicle or sparingly soluble form of the drug - Both **subcutaneous** and **intramuscular** tissues can sustain depot formulations effectively - **SC depot examples:** Insulin glargine, contraceptive implants (Nexplanon), leuprolide acetate - **IM depot examples:** Haloperidol decanoate, medroxyprogesterone acetate (Depo-Provera), paliperidone palmitate, long-acting risperidone *Subcutaneous route* - While some **depot preparations** are administered **subcutaneously**, it is not the *only* route for all depot formulations - The **subcutaneous tissue** offers relatively low blood flow, suitable for slow absorption - Alone, this option is incomplete as many depot preparations require IM administration *Intramuscular route* - Many **depot preparations** are given **intramuscularly** due to the muscle tissue's vascularity and tissue volume - The **muscle tissue** provides an excellent site for drug reservoir formation - Alone, this option is incomplete as some depot preparations are given subcutaneously *Intravenous route* - **Intravenous administration** is used for immediate and rapid drug delivery directly into the bloodstream - This route is **unsuitable for depot preparations** which require sustained release over time - No 'depot' can be formed with IV route as the drug is immediately diluted and distributed throughout the body
Radiology
1 questionsWhich condition is associated with the pencil in cup deformity?
NEET-PG 2013 - Radiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1381: Which condition is associated with the pencil in cup deformity?
- A. Rheumatoid arthritis
- B. Ankylosing spondylitis
- C. Avascular necrosis
- D. Psoriatic arthritis (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Psoriatic arthritis*** - The **pencil-in-cup deformity** is a classic radiographic finding in advanced psoriatic arthritis, occurring due to **periarticular bone erosion** and phalangeal telescoping. - This specific deformity is characterized by the proximal phalanx eroding and fitting into the expanded distal phalanx, resembling a "pencil in a cup." *Rheumatoid arthritis* - While rheumatoid arthritis causes significant joint destruction, it typically presents with **periarticular erosions** and **joint space narrowing**, but not the characteristic pencil-in-cup morphology. - Common deformities include **swan-neck** and **boutonnière** deformities, and ulnar deviation. *Ankylosing spondylitis* - This condition primarily affects the **axial skeleton**, leading to spinal fusion and **sacroiliitis**. - Peripheral joint involvement is less common and typically does not result in the pencil-in-cup deformity; instead, it can cause **syndesmophytes**. *Avascular necrosis* - **Avascular necrosis** (AVN) involves the death of bone tissue due to lack of blood supply, primarily affecting the femoral head or other major joints. - Radiographic findings include **subchondral collapse**, crescent sign, and eventual joint destruction, but not the specific deformities seen in inflammatory arthritis like pencil-in-cup.