NEET-PG 2013 Practice Questions

Q: Schamberg's purpura is seen on?

Feet. ***Feet*** - Schamberg's purpura, also known as **progressive pigmented purpuric dermatosis**, most commonly affects the **lower extremities**, particularly the feet and ankles. - The characteristic reddish-brown patches with "cayenne pepper" spots are due to **capillary inflammation** and extravasation of red blood cells. *Face* - While purpura can occur on the face due to other conditions, Schamberg's purpura **rarely presents in this location**. - Facial lesions often suggest different underlying etiologies, such as **vasculitis** or trauma. *Chest* - The chest is an **uncommon site** for Schamberg's purpura. - Involvement of the trunk is less typical compared to the dependent areas of the legs. *Arms* - Although the arms can occasionally be affected, the **feet and lower legs are the predominant sites** for Schamberg's purpura due to factors like **gravity** and hydrostatic pressure. - When present on the arms, it might indicate a more widespread or atypical presentation.

Q: In which condition is an ulceronecrotic nodule typically observed?

Lucio's leprosy. ***Lucio's leprosy*** - This is a rare, diffuse variant of **lepromatous leprosy** characterized by widespread, diffuse infiltration of the skin without distinct nodules. - The distinctive feature is the occurrence of **necrotizing vasculitis**, leading to painful, irregular ulcers and scars, known as **Lucio phenomenon** or erythema necroticans. *Lepromatous leprosy* - Characterized by **multiple, symmetrical nodules**, plaques, and diffuse infiltration, but typically without the profound ulceronecrotic changes seen in Lucio's leprosy. - The immune response is weak, leading to high bacterial load and widespread involvement, but usually not spontaneous ulceration. *Indeterminate leprosy* - This is an **early, undifferentiated form** of leprosy, characterized by a single or a few hypopigmented or erythematous macules. - Distinct nodules or ulceronecrotic lesions are not a feature of indeterminate leprosy, as the disease has not yet progressed to develop specific clinical manifestations. *Histoid leprosy* - A rare variant of lepromatous leprosy that presents with **cutaneous nodules** and papules that often resemble dermatofibromas or xanthomas. - These nodules are firm, smooth, and have a unique histological appearance, but they do not typically undergo spontaneous ulceronecrotic changes like those in Lucio's leprosy.

Q: Which of the following conditions does NOT cause nail pitting?

Pityriasis Rosea. ***Pityriasis Rosea*** - This condition primarily affects the **skin**, causing a distinctive rash of oval, pinkish-red patches, often preceded by a **herald patch**. - It characteristically spares the **nails**, meaning nail pitting is not a feature of pityriasis rosea. - Nail changes are not associated with this self-limiting dermatosis. *Lichen planus* - **Nail lichen planus** can cause various nail changes, including **pitting**, longitudinal ridging, pterygium formation, and thinning of the nail plate. - It is an inflammatory condition affecting the skin, hair, nails, and mucous membranes. - Nail involvement occurs in approximately 10% of patients with cutaneous lichen planus. *Psoriasis* - **Nail psoriasis** is common, affecting up to 50% of patients with psoriasis, and **pitting is the most characteristic nail finding**. - Pitting appears as small punctate depressions on the nail surface due to defects in the proximal nail matrix. - Other nail changes include onycholysis (oil drop sign), subungual hyperkeratosis, and salmon patches. *Fungal infection* - **Onychomycosis** (fungal nail infection) typically causes **thickening, discoloration, onycholysis, and crumbling** of the nail. - **True nail pitting is NOT a characteristic feature** of fungal infections, as pitting results from defects in the proximal nail matrix, not fungal invasion. - Fungal infections affect the nail plate and bed differently, causing destruction rather than the punctate depressions seen in pitting.

Q: Ovarian reserve is best indicated by

Anti-Müllerian Hormone (AMH). ***Anti-Müllerian Hormone (AMH)*** - **AMH is currently considered the best single biochemical marker** for assessing ovarian reserve - Produced by **granulosa cells of preantral and small antral follicles**, directly reflecting the size of the primordial follicle pool - **Cycle-independent** - can be measured at any time during the menstrual cycle - **More sensitive and specific** than FSH for detecting diminished ovarian reserve - **Minimal inter-cycle and intra-cycle variability**, providing consistent and reliable results - Widely used in **fertility assessment, IVF protocols**, and predicting ovarian response to stimulation *Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)* - Elevated **early follicular phase FSH** (measured on day 3) indicates diminished ovarian reserve - Historically the most commonly used marker, but **less sensitive than AMH** - **Cycle-dependent** - must be measured on specific days (day 2-4 of cycle) - A **late marker** - rises only when ovarian reserve is already significantly diminished - Still clinically useful and widely available, but not the "best" indicator *Luteinizing hormone (LH)* - **LH** primarily triggers ovulation and does not directly reflect ovarian reserve - Elevated in conditions like **PCOS** but does not assess the quantity or quality of remaining follicles - Not a reliable indicator of overall ovarian reserve *LH/FSH ratio* - An elevated **LH/FSH ratio** (>2:1 or >3:1) is associated with **Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS)** - Reflects anovulation and hormonal imbalance, not the number or viability of ovarian follicles - Does not assess ovarian reserve capacity

Q: Which condition is associated with HAIR-AN syndrome?

Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS). ***Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS)*** - **HAIR-AN syndrome** is a specific, severe form of **PCOS**, characterized by **HyperAndrogenism**, **Insulin Resistance**, and severe **Acanthosis Nigricans**. - It represents the most pronounced metabolic and endocrine abnormalities associated with PCOS, often with significant hyperinsulinemia. *Endometriosis* - Endometriosis involves the growth of **endometrial-like tissue outside the uterus**, causing pain and infertility. - It is not directly linked to the metabolic and hormonal disturbances seen in HAIR-AN syndrome. *CA ovary* - **Ovarian cancer** is a malignant proliferation of ovarian cells, which is not associated with the unique features of **hyperandrogenism**, **insulin resistance**, or **acanthosis nigricans** that define HAIR-AN syndrome. - Ovarian tumors can be hormone-producing, but this is distinct from the syndrome's chronic metabolic dysregulation. *Adrenal tumours* - **Adrenal tumors** can cause **hyperandrogenism** in some cases, leading to symptoms like hirsutism, but they typically do not present with the constellation of **insulin resistance** and severe **acanthosis nigricans** that define HAIR-AN syndrome. - The primary defect in HAIR-AN is ovarian and metabolic, rather than adrenal.

Q: Which local anaesthetic is known to cause methemoglobinemia?

Prilocaine. ***Prilocaine*** - **Prilocaine** is metabolized into **ortho-toluidine**, which can oxidize hemoglobin to **methemoglobin**, especially at higher doses or in susceptible individuals. - **Methemoglobinemia** symptoms include **cyanosis**, **dyspnea**, and in severe cases, central nervous system depression, due to reduced oxygen-carrying capacity of blood. *Procaine* - **Procaine** is an ester-type local anesthetic. It is metabolized to **para-aminobenzoic acid (PABA)**, which can cause allergic reactions, but it is not associated with methemoglobinemia. - It has a relatively **short duration of action** and is less commonly used now compared to amide-type local anesthetics. *Etidocaine* - **Etidocaine** is an amide-type local anesthetic that is known for its **long duration of action** and high potency. - While it can cause systemic toxicity with high doses due to its cardiac and neurological effects, **methemoglobinemia** is not a characteristic side effect. *Ropivacaine* - **Ropivacaine** is an amide-type local anesthetic similar to bupivacaine, known for its **motor-sparing effect** and use in regional anesthesia. - It is associated with a lower risk of **cardiotoxicity** compared to bupivacaine but does not cause methemoglobinemia.

Q: ECT is contraindicated in -

Raised ICT. ***Raised ICT (Correct Answer)*** - An increase in **intracranial pressure (ICP)** is the **only absolute contraindication** to ECT in modern practice. - ECT causes a **transient rise in ICP** during the seizure due to increased cerebral blood flow and cerebral metabolic rate. - In patients with pre-existing raised ICP (from brain tumors, subdural hematoma, or other space-occupying lesions), this additional increase can precipitate **brain herniation**, which is potentially fatal. - This makes raised ICP an **absolute contraindication** where the risks clearly outweigh any potential benefits. *Very ill patients* - ECT is **not contraindicated** in medically ill patients; in fact, it can be **life-saving** in severe psychiatric emergencies. - With careful medical evaluation, monitoring, and management, ECT can be safely administered to medically fragile individuals. - The rapid therapeutic response of ECT makes it particularly valuable when other treatments have failed or when quick intervention is critical. *Heart disease* - Cardiac conditions are **relative contraindications**, not absolute contraindications. - While conditions like recent MI, unstable angina, or severe arrhythmias require careful evaluation, ECT can be performed safely with appropriate cardiac optimization and monitoring. - Modern anesthetic techniques and cardiovascular management allow most patients with heart disease to receive ECT when clinically indicated. *Pregnancy* - **Pregnancy is NOT a contraindication** to ECT and is considered one of the safest treatment options for severe psychiatric illness during pregnancy. - ECT can be performed safely throughout all trimesters with appropriate obstetric consultation, fetal monitoring, and positioning adjustments. - It avoids the teratogenic risks associated with many psychotropic medications, making it a preferred option for severe depression or psychosis in pregnancy.

Q: Psychoanalysis was started by?

Sigmund Freud. ***Sigmund Freud*** - **Sigmund Freud** is widely recognized as the founder of **psychoanalysis**. - He developed theories on the **unconscious mind**, **psychosexual development**, and the use of techniques like **free association** and dream analysis. *Eugen Bleuler* - **Eugen Bleuler** was a Swiss psychiatrist who coined the term "**schizophrenia**." - While influential in psychiatry, his work was primarily focused on **descriptive psychopathology**, not the founding of psychoanalysis. *Carl Jung* - **Carl Jung** was a student of Freud who later diverged to develop his own school of thought called **analytical psychology**. - His contributions include concepts like the **collective unconscious**, archetypes, and psychological types. *Erik Erikson* - **Erik Erikson** was a developmental psychologist and psychoanalyst known for his theory of **psychosocial development**. - He expanded on Freud's work by focusing on the influence of social factors and the **lifespan stages** on personality development.

Q: Flooding is a psychological treatment modality used in which of the following?

Phobia. ***Phobia*** - **Flooding** is a specific type of **exposure therapy** that involves immediate and intense exposure to the feared object or situation for a prolonged period, without the possibility of escape. - This technique is primarily used to overcome **phobias** and other **anxiety disorders** by breaking the association between the feared stimulus and the anxiety response. *Depression* - Treatment for **depression** typically involves a combination of **pharmacotherapy** (antidepressants) and **psychotherapy**, such as cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) or interpersonal therapy. - While exposure techniques exist for some aspects of depression (e.g., social anxiety in depressive contexts), **flooding** is not a primary or standalone treatment modality for core depressive symptoms. *Mania* - **Mania**, a characteristic feature of **bipolar disorder**, is primarily treated with **mood stabilizers** (e.g., lithium, valproate) and sometimes antipsychotics. - Psychological interventions focus on **psychoeducation**, symptom monitoring, and adherence to medication, rather than exposure-based therapies like flooding. *Schizophrenia* - The primary treatment for **schizophrenia** involves **antipsychotic medications** to manage psychotic symptoms like hallucinations and delusions. - Psychological therapies, such as **cognitive-behavioral therapy for psychosis (CBTp)** and **family therapy**, aim to improve coping skills, reduce distress, and enhance social functioning, but **flooding** is not an appropriate or effective treatment.

Q: For pericardial calcifications, which is the best investigation?

CT scan. ***Correct: CT scan*** - **CT scans** are highly sensitive and specific for detecting **pericardial calcifications** due to their excellent spatial resolution and ability to measure calcium density (Hounsfield units). - They provide detailed anatomical information about the **pericardium** and can accurately map the extent, location, and thickness of calcified areas. - **CT is the gold standard** for detecting and quantifying pericardial calcification, particularly in constrictive pericarditis. *Incorrect: Ultrasound* - While ultrasound (echocardiography) can visualize the pericardium and may detect calcifications, its ability to definitively identify and characterize **calcifications** is limited compared to CT. - **Acoustic shadowing** from calcifications can obscure underlying structures, making a precise assessment challenging. - Useful for detecting pericardial effusion and thickening, but not optimal for calcification assessment. *Incorrect: MRI* - **MRI excels** in visualizing soft tissues, pericardial inflammation, and fluid collections, but it is **poor at detecting calcium**. - Calcifications typically appear as signal voids (black) on MRI, making it difficult to differentiate them from other structures, air, or motion artifacts. - MRI is valuable for assessing pericardial inflammation and constriction but not the preferred method for calcification. *Incorrect: Transesophageal echocardiography* - TEE offers high-resolution images of cardiac structures and is primarily used for assessing valve function, intracardiac masses, endocarditis, and aortic pathology. - Its utility in detecting and characterizing **pericardial calcifications** is limited compared to CT, especially for diffuse or subtle calcifications. - The pericardium is not optimally visualized with TEE compared to transthoracic echocardiography.

Question 1

Schamberg's purpura is seen on?

Accepted Answer

Feet

Answer

Face

Answer

Chest

Answer

Arms

Question 2

In which condition is an ulceronecrotic nodule typically observed?

Accepted Answer

Lucio's leprosy

Answer

Lepromatous leprosy

Answer

Indeterminate leprosy

Answer

Histoid leprosy

Question 3

Which of the following conditions does NOT cause nail pitting?

Accepted Answer

Pityriasis Rosea

Answer

Lichen planus

Answer

Fungal infection

Answer

Psoriasis

Question 4

Ovarian reserve is best indicated by

Accepted Answer

Anti-Müllerian Hormone (AMH)

Answer

Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)

Answer

Luteinizing hormone (LH)

Answer

LH/FSH ratio

Question 5

Which condition is associated with HAIR-AN syndrome?

Accepted Answer

Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS)

Answer

CA ovary

Answer

Adrenal tumours

Answer

Endometriosis

Question 6

Which local anaesthetic is known to cause methemoglobinemia?

Accepted Answer

Prilocaine

Answer

Procaine

Answer

Ropivacaine

Answer

Etidocaine

Question 7

ECT is contraindicated in -

Accepted Answer

Raised ICT

Answer

Very ill patients

Answer

Heart disease

Answer

Pregnancy

Question 8

Psychoanalysis was started by?

Accepted Answer

Sigmund Freud

Answer

Eugen Bleuler

Answer

Carl Jung

Answer

Erik Erikson

Question 9

Flooding is a psychological treatment modality used in which of the following?

Accepted Answer

Phobia

Answer

Depression

Answer

Mania

Answer

Schizophrenia

Question 10

For pericardial calcifications, which is the best investigation?

Accepted Answer

CT scan

Answer

Ultrasound

Answer

MRI

Answer

Transesophageal echocardiography

NEET-PG 2013

Dermatology

Obstetrics and Gynecology

Pharmacology

Psychiatry

Radiology