NEET-PG 2013 Practice Questions

Q: Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding rapid induction of anesthesia?

Sellick's maneuver is always required.. ***Sellick's maneuver is always required.*** - **Sellick's maneuver**, or cricoid pressure, is applied to compress the esophagus against the vertebrae, aiming to prevent **gastric regurgitation** and aspiration during rapid sequence intubation (RSI). - While historically considered a standard component of RSI, its routine use has been increasingly questioned due to a lack of strong evidence supporting its efficacy and potential to impede glottic visualization and intubation. It is not "always" required; its application is often at the discretion of the anesthetist based on patient factors and risk assessment. *Pre-oxygenation is mandatory* - **Pre-oxygenation** is a critical step in rapid sequence induction, involving administering 100% oxygen for several minutes prior to induction. - This denitrogenates the functional residual capacity (FRC), creating an oxygen reservoir that extends the safe apnea time, thus preventing **hypoxemia** during the intubation attempt. *Suxamethonium is often used.* - **Suxamethonium** (succinylcholine) is a depolarizing neuromuscular blocker primarily used in rapid sequence intubation due to its **ultra-rapid onset** (30-60 seconds) and short duration of action (5-10 minutes). - Its rapid action facilitates quick muscle relaxation for tracheal intubation, which is crucial for minimizing the risk of aspiration in patients with a full stomach or other risk factors. *Mechanical ventilation is typically avoided before intubation.* - During rapid sequence induction, **positive pressure ventilation** with a bag-valve mask is typically avoided before intubation to prevent gastric insufflation. - Gastric insufflation can increase the risk of **regurgitation** and pulmonary aspiration of gastric contents, which is a major concern in patients undergoing RSI.

Q: Which of the following is a characteristic of the Supreme Laryngeal Mask Airway (LMA)?

Includes a built-in drain tube. ***Includes a built-in drain tube*** - The **Supreme Laryngeal Mask Airway (LMA)** features an integrated **drain tube** to facilitate gastric decompression and reduce the risk of aspiration. - This design allows for the passage of a gastric tube, which can be useful during longer procedures or in patients with a higher risk of gastric content regurgitation. *Designed specifically for infants* - While LMAs are available in various sizes for all age groups, the **Supreme LMA** is not designed *specifically* for infants; it is a general-purpose LMA available in multiple sizes for different patient populations. - Other LMA types, such as the LMA Unique, are more commonly associated with a broader pediatric application. *Utilizes high pressure, low volume cuff design* - The **Supreme LMA** actually utilizes a **low pressure, high volume cuff** design, which helps contour to the perilaryngeal anatomy and minimizes pressure on mucosal tissues. - A high pressure, low volume cuff is associated with traditional endotracheal tubes and could lead to increased tissue ischemia if used with an LMA. *Does not have a bite block* - The **Supreme LMA** incorporates an **integrated bite block** within its design to prevent occlusion of the airway tube from patient biting. - This feature helps maintain airway patency and protects the LMA from damage, making it a key characteristic.

Q: What is Hegar's sign in obstetrics?

Softening of the uterine isthmus. ***Softening of the uterine isthmus*** - **Hegar's sign** is an early presumptive sign of pregnancy characterized by the **softening of the lower uterine segment (isthmus)**, which can be palpated during a bimanual examination. - This softening makes the fundus and cervix feel like separate entities, indicating increased vascularity and changes due to hormonal influence. *Uterine contractions* - While contractions do occur during pregnancy (e.g., **Braxton Hicks contractions**), they are not what defines Hegar's sign. - **Uterine contractions** are typically associated with labor or placental abruption, not the specific softening of the isthmus. *Fetal movement* - **Fetal movement** (quickening) is a positive sign of pregnancy perceived by the mother, usually after 16-20 weeks gestation. - This is entirely distinct from Hegar's sign, which is a physical finding upon examination of the uterus. *Cyanosis of the vagina* - **Cyanosis of the vagina** and cervix is known as **Chadwick's sign**, another presumptive sign of pregnancy. - Chadwick's sign is due to increased vascularity and venous congestion, causing a bluish discoloration, but it's not the softening described in Hegar's sign.

Q: Which condition can lead to the formation of loose bodies in the joint?

Osteoarthritis. ***Osteoarthritis*** - In **osteoarthritis**, the **degenerative process** of cartilage can lead to fragments breaking off and floating within the joint space, forming **loose bodies**. - These loose bodies, also known as **joint mice**, can cause mechanical symptoms like locking, clicking, or catching in the joint. *Rheumatoid arthritis* - **Rheumatoid arthritis** is an **inflammatory autoimmune disease** primarily affecting the synovium. - While it can cause joint damage, it typically does not lead to the formation of cartilaginous or bony loose bodies. *Ankylosing spondylitis* - **Ankylosing spondylitis** is a **chronic inflammatory disease** primarily affecting the spine and sacroiliac joints. - Its hallmark is new bone formation and fusion of vertebrae, not the formation of loose bodies within the joint. *Systemic lupus erythematosus* - **Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)** is a systemic autoimmune disease that can affect multiple organs, including joints. - While it can cause **non-erosive arthritis**, it does not typically result in the formation of loose bodies.

Q: In which socioeconomic strata is schizophrenia most commonly observed?

Low. ***Low*** - Epidemiological studies consistently show a **higher prevalence of schizophrenia** in individuals from **lower socioeconomic strata**. - This association is explained by the "**social drift**" hypothesis, where individuals with schizophrenia experience a decline in social class due to the chronic and disabling nature of the illness, or the "**social causation**" hypothesis, which posits that adverse social conditions contribute to the development of the disorder. *Middle* - While individuals from all socioeconomic backgrounds can develop schizophrenia, it is **less common** compared to the lowest strata. - The middle socioeconomic group generally experiences **better access to resources** and support systems, which may mitigate some risk factors. *Upper* - Schizophrenia is **least common** in the upper socioeconomic strata. - Individuals in this group typically have **greater financial stability**, better living conditions, and access to high-quality healthcare, which might protect against environmental stressors. *Upper middle* - Similar to the middle and upper strata, the upper-middle class experiences a **lower prevalence of schizophrenia** compared to the low socioeconomic group. - This group often benefits from **good educational opportunities** and stable employment, reducing some of the psychosocial stressors associated with the disorder.

Q: Which of the following is NOT considered one of Bleuler's fundamental symptoms of schizophrenia?

Delusions. ***Delusions*** - **Delusions** are considered a **first-rank symptom** of schizophrenia according to Schneider, but not one of Bleuler's fundamental "4 A's". - Bleuler classified delusions as **accessory symptoms**, which are variable and not always present, unlike fundamental symptoms. *Loosening of associations* - This is one of Bleuler's **"4 A's"**, representing a disturbance in the logical flow of thought, leading to incoherent speech and fractured thinking. - Bleuler saw this as a core cognitive dysfunction in schizophrenia. *Affect disturbances* - This refers to **inappropriate affect** (e.g., laughing at a funeral) or **blunted/flattened affect**, which is another of Bleuler's "4 A's." - It signifies a disruption in the normal experience and expression of emotions. *Autism* - Bleuler's term **"autism"** (or autismus) refers to a pathological self-preoccupation, withdrawal from social interaction, and an immersion in one's own internal world. - This is also one of Bleuler's **"4 A's"**, highlighting a foundational disturbance in social engagement.

Q: Air bronchogram on chest X-ray denotes -

Intrapulmonary lesion. ***Intrapulmonary lesion*** - An **air bronchogram** indicates that the air-filled bronchi are surrounded by consolidated or fluid-filled alveoli, making the bronchi visible against the opacified lung parenchyma. - This pattern is a strong sign of a process **within the lung tissue itself**, such as pneumonia, pulmonary edema, or malignancy. *Extrapulmonary lesion* - **Extrapulmonary lesions**, such as pleural effusions or masses originating from the chest wall, typically displace or compress the lung and bronchi, rather than filling the alveoli around them. - They usually do **not produce an air bronchogram** because the air in the bronchi is not juxtaposed against diseased lung parenchyma. *Intrathoracic lesion* - This is a broad term that includes all lesions within the thoracic cavity, both intrapulmonary and extrapulmonary. - While an air bronchogram is an intrathoracic finding, it specifically points to an **intrapulmonary process**, not just any intrathoracic lesion. *Extrathoracic lesion* - **Extrathoracic lesions** are located outside the chest cavity and would not manifest as an air bronchogram on a chest X-ray. - This option is **completely unrelated** to the interpretation of an air bronchogram.

Q: Which condition is characterized by a 'moth-eaten' appearance of the bones?

Multiple myeloma. ***Multiple myeloma*** [1][2] - Characterized by **punched-out lytic lesions** in bones, often described as **moth-eaten** appearance on imaging [1]. - Associated with **elevated serum proteins** and **Bence Jones proteins** in urine, confirming the diagnosis [2]. *Eosinophilic granuloma* - Usually presents with **solitary bone lesions** and is linked to **Langerhans cell histiocytosis** rather than the moth-eaten pattern. - Does not typically cause generalized **lytic bone lesions** seen in cases of multiple myeloma. *Chondromyxoid fibroma* - Generally appears as a **well-defined cortical lesion** and is not associated with a moth-eaten appearance. - It predominantly affects the **metaphysis** of long bones and shows a characteristic **cartilaginous matrix**. *Osteoid osteoma* - Presents with a **nidus** of osteoid formation, leading to localized bone pain, and does not exhibit a moth-eaten consistency. - Tends to cause **cortical bone thickening** rather than the diffuse lytic lesions associated with multiple myeloma. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Diseases of White Blood Cells, Lymph Nodes, Spleen, and Thymus, p. 608. [2] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Blood And Bone Marrow Disease, pp. 616-617.

Q: What is the investigation of choice for whole body imaging in metastatic breast cancer?

CT Scan. ***CT Scan (Correct answer for NEET 2013)*** - **Contrast-enhanced CT scan** was the standard imaging modality for **whole-body staging** in metastatic breast cancer at the time of this exam (2013). - CT offers **excellent spatial resolution** for detecting metastases in **bone, lung, liver, and lymph nodes**. - It is widely available, relatively quick, and provides comprehensive anatomical information. - **Modern Update:** While CT was the standard in 2013, **PET-CT (FDG-PET/CT) is now considered the gold standard** for whole-body staging in metastatic breast cancer due to its combined metabolic and anatomical imaging capabilities. However, PET-CT was not among the options in this historical question. *Magnetic Resonance Imaging* - **MRI** is highly sensitive for specific sites, particularly for **brain metastases** and **bone metastases (especially spine and bone marrow)**. - **Whole-body MRI** protocols are emerging but require longer acquisition times and specialized equipment. - Not ideal as a single first-line modality for comprehensive whole-body staging compared to CT (or modern PET-CT). *Angiography* - **Angiography** is an invasive vascular imaging procedure used to visualize **arterial blood flow**. - It has **no role in routine metastatic screening or staging** of breast cancer. - Reserved for specific indications like preoperative vascular mapping or interventional procedures. *Venography* - **Venography** specifically visualizes **venous structures** and is used to detect venous thrombosis or venous obstructions. - It is **not applicable** for detecting solid organ metastases, bone lesions, or lymph node involvement in cancer staging.

Q: What is the maximum radiation dose (in Gray) that bone tissue can tolerate?

50 Gray. ***Correct Option: 50 Gray*** - The **maximum radiation tolerance dose** for bone tissue is approximately **50-60 Gray (Gy)** based on radiobiology literature and clinical practice. - Among the given options, **50 Gy** represents the most appropriate threshold for bone tolerance. - According to **Emami et al. tolerance doses** and **QUANTEC guidelines**, bone can typically tolerate up to 60 Gy without significant risk of complications. - Doses approaching or exceeding **60 Gy** carry increased risk of **osteoradionecrosis**, particularly in the **mandible and weight-bearing bones**. - **Clinical significance**: In radiation therapy planning, doses of 50-60 Gy to bone are commonly used therapeutically for tumors involving or adjacent to bone. *Incorrect Option: 40 Gray* - 40 Gy is **below the accepted tolerance threshold** for bone tissue. - This dose is generally **well-tolerated** by bone without significant risk of necrosis or fracture. - Commonly used in palliative and definitive radiation protocols without major bone complications. *Incorrect Option: 30 Gray* - 30 Gy is **considerably below** the tolerance limit for bone. - This dose level is **safe for bone tissue** and carries minimal risk of radiation-induced bone damage. - Often used in palliative treatments with excellent bone tolerance. *Incorrect Option: 20 Gray* - 20 Gy is a **low radiation dose** from the perspective of bone tolerance. - This dose is **highly unlikely** to cause any significant bone damage or complications. - Represents a conservative therapeutic dose well within safety margins.

Question 1

Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding rapid induction of anesthesia?

Accepted Answer

Sellick's maneuver is always required.

Answer

Suxamethonium is often used.

Answer

Mechanical ventilation is typically avoided before intubation.

Answer

Pre-oxygenation is mandatory

Question 2

Which of the following is a characteristic of the Supreme Laryngeal Mask Airway (LMA)?

Accepted Answer

Includes a built-in drain tube

Answer

Designed specifically for infants

Answer

Utilizes high pressure, low volume cuff design

Answer

Does not have a bite block

Question 3

What is Hegar's sign in obstetrics?

Accepted Answer

Softening of the uterine isthmus

Answer

Uterine contractions

Answer

Fetal movement

Answer

Cyanosis of the vagina

Question 4

Which condition can lead to the formation of loose bodies in the joint?

Accepted Answer

Osteoarthritis

Answer

Rheumatoid arthritis

Answer

Ankylosing spondylitis

Answer

Systemic lupus erythematosus

Question 5

In which socioeconomic strata is schizophrenia most commonly observed?

Accepted Answer

Low

Answer

Middle

Answer

Upper

Answer

Upper middle

Question 6

Which of the following is NOT considered one of Bleuler's fundamental symptoms of schizophrenia?

Accepted Answer

Delusions

Answer

Loosening of associations

Answer

Affect disturbances

Answer

Autism

Question 7

Air bronchogram on chest X-ray denotes -

Accepted Answer

Intrapulmonary lesion

Answer

Extrapulmonary lesion

Answer

Intrathoracic lesion

Answer

Extrathoracic lesion

Question 8

Which condition is characterized by a 'moth-eaten' appearance of the bones?

Accepted Answer

Multiple myeloma

Answer

Osteoid osteoma

Answer

Eosinophilic granuloma

Answer

Chondromyxoid fibroma

Question 9

What is the investigation of choice for whole body imaging in metastatic breast cancer?

Accepted Answer

CT Scan

Answer

Angiography

Answer

Venography

Answer

Magnetic Resonance Imaging

Question 10

What is the maximum radiation dose (in Gray) that bone tissue can tolerate?

Accepted Answer

50 Gray

Answer

30 Gray

Answer

20 Gray

Answer

40 Gray

NEET-PG 2013

Anesthesiology

Obstetrics and Gynecology

Orthopaedics

Psychiatry

Radiology