NEET-PG 2013 Practice Questions

Q: Which of the following is not a sign of stellate ganglion block?

Exophthalmos. ***Exophthalmos*** - A stellate ganglion block paralyses the **sympathetic nervous system** to the head and neck. - **Exophthalmos** (bulging of the eye) is a sign of sympathetic **hyperactivity**, not blockade. *Miosis* - **Miosis** (pupil constriction) is a classic sign of sympathetic blockade. - The **dilator pupillae muscle** is paralyzed, leading to unopposed parasympathetic action. *Nasal congestion* - **Nasal congestion** is a common sign due to the **vasodilation** of nasal blood vessels from sympathetic blockade. - Sympathetic nerves normally cause **vasoconstriction** in the nasal mucosa. *Conjunctival redness* - **Conjunctival redness** occurs due to **vasodilation** of conjunctival blood vessels, a direct effect of sympathetic blockade. - This is part of the **Horner's syndrome** presentation.

Q: Which anesthetic agent is known for providing smooth induction?

Isoflurane. ***Isoflurane*** - **Isoflurane** is frequently chosen for its capacity to induce a **smooth and rapid loss of consciousness**, primarily due to its low blood solubility which facilitates quick changes in anesthetic depth. - Its **minimal irritation** to the respiratory tract and **stable cardiovascular profile** during induction contribute to a smoother process for the patient. *Sevoflurane* - While sevoflurane also offers a **smooth and rapid induction** due to its low solubility, it is sometimes associated with a higher incidence of **airway irritation** (e.g., coughing) compared to isoflurane, especially in children. - It is known for its **pleasant odor**, making it a good choice for mask induction in pediatric patients. *Halothane* - **Halothane** provides a relatively smooth induction but has a higher risk of **hepatotoxicity** and cardiac arrhythmias, which have led to its decreased use. - Its higher blood solubility means a **slower onset and offset** compared to modern volatile agents like isoflurane. *Enflurane* - **Enflurane** can cause **CNS excitation** at deeper levels of anesthesia, potentially leading to seizures, making its induction less smooth and predictable. - It also has a greater potential to cause **myocardial depression** and arrhythmias than isoflurane.

Q: The best local anesthetic for prolonged ophthalmic surgery requiring extended post-operative analgesia is:

Bupivacaine. ***Bupivacaine*** - **Bupivacaine** is an amide-type local anesthetic known for its **long duration of action** due to its high protein binding and lipid solubility. - This property makes it ideal for procedures requiring **prolonged analgesia**, such as extended ophthalmic surgery and post-operative pain control. *Tetracaine* - **Tetracaine** is an ester-type local anesthetic primarily used for **topical anesthesia**, especially in ophthalmology. - While effective for surface anesthesia, its duration of action is relatively short, making it unsuitable for prolonged surgical procedures requiring sustained nerve block. *Procaine* - **Procaine** is an ester-type local anesthetic with a **short duration of action** and is generally associated with a higher incidence of allergic reactions. - It is rarely used today for major regional blocks due to its limited potency and short effect, unlike the requirement for prolonged ophthalmic surgery. *Prilocaine* - **Prilocaine** is an amide-type local anesthetic with an **intermediate duration of action**. - Its use is limited in some cases due to its potential to cause **methemoglobinemia** at higher doses, making it less suitable for applications requiring extensive or prolonged regional anesthesia compared to bupivacaine.

Q: Drug of choice for Bier's block ?

Lidocaine. ***Lidocaine*** - **Lidocaine** is the preferred local anesthetic for **Bier's block** (intravenous regional anesthesia) due to its rapid onset and good safety profile. - Its relatively short duration of action and **minimal cardiotoxicity** upon systemic release are favorable for this technique. *Bupivacaine* - **Bupivacaine** has a **longer duration of action** and is associated with a higher risk of **cardiotoxicity** when inadvertently delivered systemically, making it less suitable for Bier's block. - Its use in Bier's block is generally avoided due to the potential for significant adverse events if the tourniquet malfunctions or is released prematurely. *Etidocaine* - **Etidocaine** is a potent, **long-acting local anesthetic** with a similar toxicity profile to bupivacaine, making it less ideal for Bier's block. - Its prolonged action and higher potential for systemic toxicity make it less favorable for a procedure where rapid washout and lower systemic risk are desired. *Ropivacaine* - **Ropivacaine** is an amide-type local anesthetic with a similar efficacy to bupivacaine but with a **lower potential for cardiotoxicity**. - While safer than bupivacaine, **lidocaine** is still generally preferred for Bier's block due to its established safety record, faster onset, and lower cost.

Q: Percentage of adrenaline with lignocaine for local infiltration is?

1:50000. ***1:50000*** - This concentration of **adrenaline (epinephrine)** is commonly used with **lignocaine (lidocaine)** for local infiltration to prolong the anesthetic effect and reduce bleeding. - At this concentration, adrenaline acts as a **vasoconstrictor**, decreasing systemic absorption of lignocaine and allowing a higher dose locally. *1:1000* - This concentration of adrenaline is typically used for the treatment of **anaphylaxis** and is considered too high for local infiltration with lignocaine. - Using such a high concentration locally can lead to severe **vasoconstriction**, tissue ischemia, and systemic side effects like **tachycardia** and **hypertension**. *1:10000* - This concentration is too strong for routine local infiltration and is usually reserved for **cardiac arrest** protocols or severe anaphylaxis when administered intravenously. - It would carry a significant risk of **tissue damage** and systemic effects if used for local infiltration. *1:200000* - While sometimes used, **1:50000** is generally the more common and effective concentration for achieving **hemostasis** and prolonging anesthesia during local infiltration. - A 1:200000 concentration provides a lesser degree of **vasoconstriction**, potentially leading to less prolonged local anesthetic effect and reduced bleeding control compared to 1:50000.

Q: Which of the following causes non-cicatricial alopecia?

All of the options. ***All of the options*** - **Tinea capitis**, **SLE** (Systemic Lupus Erythematosus), and **Alopecia areata** all can cause **non-cicatricial alopecia**. - **Non-cicatricial alopecia** refers to hair loss where the hair follicle is not permanently destroyed, and hair regrowth is possible, leaving no scarring. *Tinea capitis* - This is a **fungal infection** of the scalp that causes hair shafts to break, leading to patches of hair loss. - While it can lead to inflammation, it typically does not cause permanent destruction of the hair follicle unless severe and untreated, thus being predominantly **non-cicatricial**. *SLE* - Hair loss in **SLE** can occur due to various mechanisms, including diffuse thinning, patchy alopecia, or the characteristic "**lupus hair**" (fragile hairs around the hairline). - This type of hair loss is usually **non-scarring** and reversible, although discoid lupus erythematosus often causes scarring alopecia. *Alopecia areata* - This is an **autoimmune condition** characterized by patchy, sudden hair loss on the scalp or other body parts. - The hair follicles are attacked by the immune system but are not destroyed, making the condition largely **non-cicatricial** and potentially reversible.

Q: Brown macular pigmentation in malar area in a pregnant female is due to ?

Chloasma. ***Chloasma*** - **Chloasma**, also known as the **mask of pregnancy**, is characterized by **dark, irregular patches** of hyperpigmentation on the face, commonly in the malar areas. - It is caused by an increase in **estrogen and progesterone levels** during pregnancy, which stimulate melanin production. *Acanthosis nigricans* - This condition presents as **dark, velvety patches of skin**, typically in the body folds and creases, such as the neck, armpits, and groin. - It is often associated with **insulin resistance**, obesity, or underlying malignancies, not specifically pregnancy-induced facial pigmentation. *Urticaric pigmentosa* - This is a form of **mastocytosis** characterized by reddish-brown spots or patches that can **urticate (itch and swell)** when rubbed, a sign known as **Darier's sign**. - It results from an accumulation of **mast cells** in the skin and is not related to hormonal changes in pregnancy. *Acne rosacea* - **Acne rosacea** is a chronic inflammatory skin condition primarily affecting the face, causing **redness, flushing, visible blood vessels**, and sometimes bumps or pimples. - It is unrelated to hyperpigmentation and does not typically result in brown macular pigmentation.

Q: Which of the following drugs is effective in the treatment of pityriasis versicolor?

Ketoconazole. ***Ketoconazole*** - **Ketoconazole** is an **azoles antifungal agent** effective against the *Malassezia* species, the causative agent of **pityriasis versicolor**. - It works by inhibiting the synthesis of **ergosterol**, a crucial component of the fungal cell membrane, leading to its disruption and fungal cell death. *Metronidazole* - **Metronidazole** is an **antibiotic** and **amoebicide** primarily used to treat bacterial and parasitic infections. - It has **no antifungal activity** and is thus ineffective against *Malassezia* or other fungal infections. *Griseofulvin* - **Griseofulvin** is an **oral antifungal drug** primarily used for **dermatophyte infections** of the skin, hair, and nails (e.g., tinea capitis, onychomycosis). - It is **ineffective against yeasts and molds**, including *Malassezia*, making it unsuitable for pityriasis versicolor. *Chloroquine* - **Chloroquine** is an **antimalarial drug** also used in the treatment of some autoimmune conditions like lupus erythematosus. - It possesses **no antifungal properties** and is not used to treat fungal infections of any kind.

Q: Lines of Blaschko are related to?

Keratinocytes. ***Keratinocytes*** - **Lines of Blaschko** represent the migratory pathways of embryonic cells, primarily **keratinocytes**, in the skin. - These lines are not visible under normal conditions but become apparent in various **genetic skin disorders** where abnormal cells follow these specific patterns. *Blood vessels* - While blood vessels are extensively present in the skin, they do not follow the specific **migratory patterns** described by the Lines of Blaschko. - Their arrangement is more related to **vascular networks** and anatomical supply rather than embryonic cell migration. *Nerves* - **Nerves** in the skin have specific distributions, often following dermatomal patterns, which are distinct from the **Lines of Blaschko**. - Nerve distribution is related to their segmental origin from the **spinal cord**, not the migratory paths of epidermal cells. *Bones* - **Bones** are part of the skeletal system and are not found in the skin, making them unrelated to the **Lines of Blaschko**. - These lines describe epidermal cell migration, which is a feature of the **integumentary system**.

Q: All are seen in Behçet's syndrome except:

Pyoderma gangrenosum. ***Pyoderma gangrenosum*** - While Behçet's syndrome can involve skin lesions, **pyoderma gangrenosum** is not typically part of its diagnostic criteria or common manifestations. - Pyoderma gangrenosum is a distinct neutrophilic dermatosis characterized by rapidly enlarging, painful ulcers. *Erythema nodosum* - **Erythema nodosum** is a common dermatological manifestation in Behçet's syndrome, characterized by tender subcutaneous nodules, usually on the shins. - These lesions reflect the systemic inflammatory nature of the disease in various organs. *Genital ulcers* - **Genital ulcers** are one of the major diagnostic criteria for Behçet's syndrome, often painful and recurrent. - They tend to be deep and can form scars, appearing on the scrotum, penis, labia, or perianal area. *Oral ulcers* - **Recurrent oral aphthous ulcers** are the most common and often the initial symptom of Behçet's syndrome. - These ulcers are typically painful, varying in size, and can occur on any mucosal surface in the mouth.

Question 1

Which of the following is not a sign of stellate ganglion block?

Accepted Answer

Exophthalmos

Answer

Miosis

Answer

Conjunctival redness

Answer

Nasal congestion

Question 2

Which anesthetic agent is known for providing smooth induction?

Accepted Answer

Isoflurane

Answer

Halothane

Answer

Enflurane

Answer

Sevoflurane

Question 3

The best local anesthetic for prolonged ophthalmic surgery requiring extended post-operative analgesia is:

Accepted Answer

Bupivacaine

Answer

Tetracaine

Answer

Procaine

Answer

Prilocaine

Question 4

Drug of choice for Bier's block ?

Accepted Answer

Lidocaine

Answer

Bupivacaine

Answer

Etidocaine

Answer

Ropivacaine

Question 5

Percentage of adrenaline with lignocaine for local infiltration is?

Accepted Answer

1:50000

Answer

1:1000

Answer

1:10000

Answer

1:200000

Question 6

Which of the following causes non-cicatricial alopecia?

Accepted Answer

All of the options

Answer

Tinea capitis

Answer

SLE

Answer

Alopecia areata

Question 7

Brown macular pigmentation in malar area in a pregnant female is due to ?

Accepted Answer

Chloasma

Answer

Urticaric pigmentosa

Answer

Acanthosis nigricans

Answer

Acne rosacea

Question 8

Which of the following drugs is effective in the treatment of pityriasis versicolor?

Accepted Answer

Ketoconazole

Answer

Metronidazole

Answer

Griseofulvin

Answer

Chloroquine

Question 9

Lines of Blaschko are related to?

Accepted Answer

Keratinocytes

Answer

Blood vessels

Answer

Nerves

Answer

Bones

Question 10

All are seen in Behçet's syndrome except:

Accepted Answer

Pyoderma gangrenosum

Answer

Erythema nodosum

Answer

Genital ulcers

Answer

Oral ulcers

NEET-PG 2013

Anesthesiology

Dental

Dermatology

Internal Medicine