NEET-PG 2013

1544 Questions — Page 123 of 155

Anatomy

1 questions

Q1221

What is the bispinous diameter?

Obstetrics and Gynecology

9 questions

Q1221

On which day LH & FSH should be measured?

Q1222

Magnification obtained by colposcopy is?

Q1223

Oligomenorrhoea means ?

Q1224

For routine diagnostic purposes, endometrial biopsy is usually done at which phase of the menstrual cycle?

Q1225

In the context of obstructed labor, which maternal pelvic parameter is considered the most critical for successful delivery?

Q1226

Which type of pelvis is most commonly associated with dystocia?

Q1227

Ovarian reserve is best indicated by

Q1228

What does teratozoospermia refer to?

Q1229

Bishop scoring is done for ?

NEET-PG 2013 - Obstetrics and Gynecology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 1221: On which day LH & FSH should be measured?

A. 1-3rd day (Correct Answer)
B. 7th day
C. 14th day
D. 10th day

Explanation: ***1-3rd day*** - Measuring **LH** (Luteinizing Hormone) and **FSH** (Follicle-Stimulating Hormone) on cycle days 1-3 provides a baseline assessment of **ovarian reserve** and pituitary function. - At this early follicular phase, hormone levels are relatively stable and reflect the intrinsic **gonadal feedback** mechanisms before significant follicular development begins. *7th day* - By day 7, **follicular development** is usually well underway, and FSH levels might be decreasing as a dominant follicle is selected. - Measuring hormones on this day would not provide an accurate baseline assessment, as the levels are already influenced by **follicular growth**. *14th day* - Day 14 is often associated with the **LH surge** that triggers ovulation, making it unsuitable for a baseline assessment of ovarian reserve. - FSH levels would also be significantly different from the early follicular phase due to the ongoing **ovarian cycle events**. *10th day* - On day 10, **estrogen levels** are typically rising, which would already be providing negative feedback to the pituitary, affecting FSH and LH levels. - This timing would not be ideal for assessing baseline hormone levels for **fertility evaluations**.

Question 1222: Magnification obtained by colposcopy is?

A. 1-2 times
B. 5-6 times
C. 15-25 times
D. 10-20 times (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***10-20 times*** - Colposcopes typically provide magnification in the range of **10 to 20 times** to allow for detailed examination of the cervix, vagina, and vulva. - This magnification level is sufficient to identify changes in the **epithelium**, such as those associated with dysplasia or cancer. *1-2 times* - A magnification of 1-2 times is very low and would not be adequate for **detailed visualization** of the cervix and its microscopic changes. - This range is more akin to **naked eye** observation or a simple magnifying glass, insufficient for colposcopic purposes. *5-6 times* - While 5-6 times magnification offers some detail, it is generally **insufficient** for the precise identification of subtle epithelial changes or abnormal vascular patterns characteristic of dysplasia. - Most colposcopes are designed to provide higher magnification to enhance diagnostic accuracy. *15-25 times* - While some advanced colposcopes might offer magnification up to 25 times, the standard and most commonly used range is **10-20 times**. - Magnification significantly beyond 20 times can sometimes lead to a **smaller field of view** and increased difficulty in focusing, making it less practical for routine examination.

Question 1223: Oligomenorrhoea means ?

A. Cycle < 20 days
B. Cycle more than 45 days
C. Cycle more than 28 days
D. Cycle longer than 35 days (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Cycle longer than 35 days*** - **Oligomenorrhea** is defined by menstrual cycles that are **infrequently occurring**, specifically lasting longer than 35 days. - This condition is distinct from **amenorrhea**, which is the complete absence of menstruation. *Cycle < 20 days* - A menstrual cycle lasting less than 20 days is considered **polymenorrhea**, indicating abnormally frequent menstruation. - This is the opposite of oligomenorrhea, which refers to infrequent menstruation. *Cycle more than 45 days* - While a cycle longer than 45 days would technically fall under **oligomenorrhea**, the general definition begins at an interval longer than **35 days**. - Cycles significantly longer than 45 days might also point to **amenorrhea**, depending on the exact duration and pattern. *Cycle more than 28 days* - A cycle lasting more than 28 days is within the **normal range** for many individuals, as the average cycle length is 21-35 days. - Therefore, this duration alone does **not define oligomenorrhea**.

Question 1224: For routine diagnostic purposes, endometrial biopsy is usually done at which phase of the menstrual cycle?

A. Just before menstruation (Correct Answer)
B. 10-12 days after menstruation
C. Just after menstruation
D. At the time of ovulation

Explanation: ***Just before menstruation*** - An endometrial biopsy is typically performed in the **late secretory phase (just before menstruation)**. This timing is crucial for evaluating the endometrial response to progesterone and for detecting abnormalities that may be evident during this phase. - This timing allows for the assessment of the **full development of the secretory glands** and stroma, which can reveal issues like **inadequate luteal phase** or **endometrial hyperplasia** more clearly. *10-12 days after menstruation* - This time point corresponds to the mid-proliferative phase, where the endometrium is still growing under **estrogen influence**. - While suitable for evaluating proliferative changes, it might **miss subtle secretory phase abnormalities** or early signs of hyperplasia that are more evident later. *Just after menstruation* - This period is the early proliferative phase, where the endometrium is **thin and regenerating**. - Biopsying at this time might yield insufficient tissue for comprehensive evaluation and would be too early to assess **hormonal responses** that occur later in the cycle. *At the time of ovulation* - Ovulation marks the transition from the proliferative to the secretory phase, influenced by a surge in **luteinizing hormone (LH)**. - An endometrial biopsy at this phase would primarily show a proliferative endometrium and would not provide adequate information about the **key features of the secretory phase**, which are important for diagnostic purposes related to fertility or abnormal bleeding.

Question 1225: In the context of obstructed labor, which maternal pelvic parameter is considered the most critical for successful delivery?

A. Biparietal diameter
B. Bitemporal diameter
C. Diameter of pelvic outlet
D. Diameter of pelvic inlet (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Diameter of pelvic inlet*** - The **pelvic inlet** is typically the narrowest and most critical passage for the fetal head to engage and descend into the pelvis during labor. - An inadequate pelvic inlet diameter can lead to **cephalopelvic disproportion**, resulting in **obstructed labor** because the fetal head cannot enter the true pelvis. *Diameter of pelvic outlet* - While important for the final stages of labor, an inadequate **pelvic outlet** usually presents a problem only after the fetal head has successfully navigated the inlet and mid-pelvis. - Obstruction at the outlet is less common as the primary cause of prolonged or arrested first stage labor compared to an unyielding inlet. *Biparietal diameter* - The **biparietal diameter (BPD)** measures the widest transverse diameter of the fetal head, which is crucial but represents a fetal parameter. - While critical for assessing fetal head size in relation to the maternal pelvis, it is a fetal measurement, not a maternal pelvic parameter like the inlet. *Bitemporal diameter* - The **bitemporal diameter** is the shortest transverse diameter of the fetal head and is rarely the presenting issue in **obstructed labor**. - It is typically much smaller than the biparietal diameter and usually presents no obstacle to passage through the pelvis.

Question 1226: Which type of pelvis is most commonly associated with dystocia?

A. Android (Correct Answer)
B. Platypelloid
C. Gynaecoid
D. Anthropoid

Explanation: ***Android*** - The **android pelvis** has a **heart-shaped inlet** and converging side walls, which significantly increases the risk of **dystocia** due to restricted passage for the fetal head. - This pelvic shape is more common in men but can also be found in women, leading to a higher likelihood of **cephalopelvic disproportion**. *Platypelloid* - The **platypelloid pelvis** has a **flattened oval inlet** with a short anteroposterior diameter and a wide transverse diameter. - While it can lead to difficulties with engagement and rotation, it is not as commonly associated with severe dystocia as the android type, as the fetal head can often rotate to fit. *Gynaecoid* - The **gynaecoid pelvis** is considered the **ideal female pelvis** with a rounded or slightly oval inlet and well-proportioned diameters. - It is associated with the **easiest and most successful vaginal deliveries** and therefore is least likely to cause dystocia. *Anthropoid* - The **anthropoid pelvis** has an **oval inlet** with a long anteroposterior diameter and a relatively short transverse diameter. - While it can sometimes lead to an **occiput-posterior presentation**, it is not as strongly associated with dystocia as the android pelvis.

Question 1227: Ovarian reserve is best indicated by

A. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
B. Anti-Müllerian Hormone (AMH) (Correct Answer)
C. Luteinizing hormone (LH)
D. LH/FSH ratio

Explanation: ***Anti-Müllerian Hormone (AMH)*** - **AMH is currently considered the best single biochemical marker** for assessing ovarian reserve - Produced by **granulosa cells of preantral and small antral follicles**, directly reflecting the size of the primordial follicle pool - **Cycle-independent** - can be measured at any time during the menstrual cycle - **More sensitive and specific** than FSH for detecting diminished ovarian reserve - **Minimal inter-cycle and intra-cycle variability**, providing consistent and reliable results - Widely used in **fertility assessment, IVF protocols**, and predicting ovarian response to stimulation *Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)* - Elevated **early follicular phase FSH** (measured on day 3) indicates diminished ovarian reserve - Historically the most commonly used marker, but **less sensitive than AMH** - **Cycle-dependent** - must be measured on specific days (day 2-4 of cycle) - A **late marker** - rises only when ovarian reserve is already significantly diminished - Still clinically useful and widely available, but not the "best" indicator *Luteinizing hormone (LH)* - **LH** primarily triggers ovulation and does not directly reflect ovarian reserve - Elevated in conditions like **PCOS** but does not assess the quantity or quality of remaining follicles - Not a reliable indicator of overall ovarian reserve *LH/FSH ratio* - An elevated **LH/FSH ratio** (>2:1 or >3:1) is associated with **Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS)** - Reflects anovulation and hormonal imbalance, not the number or viability of ovarian follicles - Does not assess ovarian reserve capacity

Question 1228: What does teratozoospermia refer to?

A. Low sperm count
B. Sperm with abnormal motility
C. Absence of sperm in semen
D. Morphologically defective sperm (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Morphologically defective sperm*** - **Teratozoospermia** specifically refers to the presence of an unusually high percentage of **abnormally shaped sperm** in an ejaculate. - These malformations can affect the **head, midpiece, or tail** of the sperm, potentially impairing its ability to fertilize an egg. *Low sperm count* - This condition is known as **oligozoospermia**, which refers to a sperm concentration below the normal range. - While low sperm count can affect fertility, it is distinct from issues with sperm morphology. *Sperm with abnormal motility* - This condition is called **asthenozoospermia**, characterized by reduced or absent sperm movement. - Poor motility impacts the sperm's ability to reach and penetrate the egg, but it is not directly related to sperm shape. *Absence of sperm in semen* - The complete absence of sperm in the ejaculate is known as **azoospermia**. - This is a severe form of male infertility, different from having sperm with structural defects.

Question 1229: Bishop scoring is done for ?

A. Exchange transfusion in newborns
B. Newborn ventilation assessment
C. Newborn gestation assessment
D. Induction of labor assessment (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Induction of labor assessment*** - The **Bishop score** is a pre-labor scoring system used to assess the ripeness of the cervix. - A higher score indicates a more **favorable cervix** for the successful **induction of labor**. *Exchange transfusion in newborns* - **Exchange transfusion** is primarily indicated for severe hyperbilirubinemia or hemolytic disease in newborns. - Its assessment is based on **bilirubin levels** and other clinical factors, not the Bishop score. *Newborn ventilation assessment* - **Newborn ventilation assessment** involves evaluating respiratory effort, heart rate, and oxygenation status, often using scores like the **Apgar score**. - The Bishop score is unrelated to neonatal respiratory function. *Newborn gestation assessment* - **Newborn gestation assessment** is typically performed using methods like the **New Ballard Score** or by reviewing prenatal ultrasound dating. - The Bishop score is used in *maternal* obstetric management, not directly for neonatal gestational age estimation.