NEET-PG 2013 Practice Questions

Q: Intraocular pressure is increased by which anaesthetic?

Ketamine. ***Ketamine*** - **Ketamine** is known to increase **intraocular pressure (IOP)**, making it generally avoided in patients with glaucoma or penetrating eye injuries. - This effect is thought to be due to its dissociative properties, causing **nystagmus**, and stimulating extraocular muscles. *Nitrous Oxide* - **Nitrous oxide** by itself has minimal or no direct effect on **intraocular pressure (IOP)**. - However, in cases of an air-filled globe (e.g., after retinal detachment surgery), it can increase IOP by expanding the gas bubble. *Isoflurane* - **Isoflurane**, like most volatile anesthetics, typically **decreases intraocular pressure (IOP)**. - This reduction is generally due to its effects on reducing aqueous humor production and increasing uveoscleral outflow. *Propofol* - **Propofol** is known for its ability to **decrease intraocular pressure (IOP)**. - This effect is mediated by a reduction in aqueous humor production and an increase in uveoscleral outflow, making it a favorable choice in ophthalmic surgery.

Q: Turn-buckle cast is used for ?

Management of spinal deformities. ***Management of spinal deformities*** - A **turn-buckle cast** is specifically designed to apply gradual, corrective forces for **spinal deformities** like scoliosis or kyphosis. - It allows for incremental adjustments to the cast to achieve progressive stretching and correction of the spinal curve. *Fracture of the humerus* - **Humerus fractures** are typically managed with hanging arm casts, coaptation splints, or surgical fixation, depending on the fracture type and location. - A turn-buckle cast is not suitable for immobilizing or reducing a **humeral fracture**. *Fracture of the femur* - **Femur fractures** in adults usually require surgical intervention, such as intramedullary nailing, due to the high biomechanical stress on the bone. - For conservative management in children, traction or spica casts might be used, but not a **turn-buckle cast**. *Cervical spine immobilization* - **Cervical spine immobilization** is typically achieved using rigid cervical collars, halo vests, or specialized orthoses designed to restrict head and neck movement. - A turn-buckle cast is too bulky and not anatomically suitable for effective **cervical spine stabilization**.

Q: Characteristic of chronic eczema?

Lichenification. ***Lichenification*** - **Lichenification** is a hallmark of chronic eczema, characterized by thickening of the epidermis with exaggerated skin markings due to persistent rubbing or scratching. - This response reflects the long-term inflammatory and reparative processes in chronically affected skin. *Erythema* - **Erythema**, or redness, is a common finding in both acute and chronic inflammatory skin conditions, including acute eczema, but is not specifically characteristic of chronicity. - While present, it does not distinguish chronic from acute phases as definitively as other features. *Induration* - **Induration** refers to hardening or firmness of the skin, often due to inflammation or infection, and while it can be present in chronic eczema, it's a more general sign and not as specific as lichenification. - It might also suggest other conditions like cellulitis or deep tissue involvement. *Edema* - **Edema**, or swelling, is more prominent in the acute phase of eczema due to vasodilation and increased vascular permeability leading to fluid extravasation. - While some edema can persist, it's a less defining feature of chronic eczema compared to the epidermal changes observed in lichenification.

Q: A young sexually active female presents with intense pruritus and watery discharge. What is the most likely causative organism?

Trichomonas vaginalis. ***Trichomonas vaginalis*** - **Trichomoniasis** presents with **intense vulvovaginal pruritus** and **profuse discharge** that can range from watery to **frothy, yellow-green** in appearance, often with a **strawberry cervix**. - It is a **sexually transmitted infection (STI)** caused by a **flagellated protozoan** with vaginal **pH >4.5** and is treated with **metronidazole**. *Chlamydia trachomatis* - Often causes **asymptomatic infections** or **mucopurulent cervical discharge** with **dysuria** and **post-coital bleeding**, but typically **no intense pruritus**. - It is a **bacterial STI** that primarily causes **cervicitis** and **pelvic inflammatory disease**, not the characteristic intense itching described. *Candida albicans* - Causes **severe vulvovaginal pruritus** but with a **thick, white, curd-like discharge** rather than watery discharge, and is **not sexually transmitted**. - Known as **vulvovaginal candidiasis** or yeast infection, caused by fungal overgrowth, often precipitated by **antibiotics** or **immunosuppression**. *Gardnerella vaginalis* - Associated with **bacterial vaginosis**, presenting with **thin, grayish-white discharge** and **fishy odor** (especially after intercourse), but **minimal pruritus**. - Caused by **vaginal flora imbalance** with loss of **lactobacilli** and overgrowth of anaerobic bacteria, not primarily an STI.

Q: The 'T' sign is associated with which condition?

Monochorionic twin pregnancy. ***Monochorionic twin pregnancy*** - The **'T' sign** on ultrasound is highly suggestive of a **monochorionic twin pregnancy**, indicating shared placenta and a thin inter-twin membrane that meets the chorion at a sharp, T-shaped angle. - This sign identifies the absence of a chorionic plate extending into the inter-twin membrane, distinguishing it from thick-membraned dichorionic pregnancies. *Dichorionic twin pregnancy* - Dichorionic pregnancies typically exhibit the **'lambda' or 'twin peak' sign**, where the chorion extends into the inter-twin membrane, creating a triangular projection, not a 'T' shape. - This sign indicates two separate placentas (or fused but distinct placentas) and two chorions, leading to a thicker inter-twin membrane. *Normal singleton pregnancy* - A normal singleton pregnancy involves only one fetus, and therefore no inter-twin membrane or associated signs like the 'T' or 'lambda' sign are present. - The concept of chorionicity and amnionicity is specific to multiple gestations, particularly twin pregnancies. *Multiple gestation* - While a monochorionic twin pregnancy is a type of multiple gestation, the term "multiple gestation" is too broad and does not specifically identify the **'T' sign**. - Multiple gestation can be either monochorionic or dichorionic, and only monochorionic pregnancies are associated with the 'T' sign.

Q: What is meant by 'Battledore insertion of placenta'?

Umbilical cord attached to the margin of the placenta. ***Umbilical cord attached to the margin of the placenta*** - In a **Battledore insertion**, the **umbilical cord** inserts into the **edge** or **margin** of the placenta, rather than its center. - This unusual insertion resembles a **battledore**, a type of ancient racket or paddle with a handle at its edge (similar to those used in shuttlecock games). *Placenta attached to the margin of the membranes* - This description is more consistent with a **circumvallate placenta**, where the chorionic plate is smaller than the basal plate, leading to a rolled or folded margin of placental tissue covered by membranes, but it does not describe Battledore insertion. - In circumvallate placenta, the chorionic plate's edge rolls back and is surrounded by a ring of membranes, while Battledore refers specifically to the cord's insertion. *Placenta attached to the center of the uterus* - This simply indicates a **normal location** for the placenta within the uterine cavity and does not describe any abnormal insertion of the umbilical cord or specific characteristics of the placenta itself. - The placenta typically attaches to the uterine wall and can be central, fundal, or anterior/posterior, but this statement doesn't relate to the cord's insertion point. *Umbilical cord attached to the membranes* - This condition is known as **velamentous insertion of the umbilical cord**, where the cord blood vessels fan out within the amniotic membrane before reaching the placental tissue. - Velamentous insertion is a distinct anomaly from Battledore insertion and carries different risks, such as vasa previa and a higher risk of vessel compression or rupture.

Q: Which of the following is NOT a common fracture in children?

Fracture of hand. ***Fracture of hand*** - While hand fractures can occur in children, they are generally **less common** compared to fractures of the long bones, especially those of the **upper extremity**, due to the types of activities and falls children typically experience. - The small bones of the hand are often better protected or less frequently exposed to severe direct trauma in routine childhood activities that lead to fractures elsewhere. *Lateral condyle humerus* - This is a common and often challenging fracture in children, particularly affecting those aged 6-10 years. - It usually results from a fall on an **outstretched hand**, with the elbow in extension. *Supracondylar humerus* - This is one of the **most common elbow fractures** in children and is typically due to a fall on an **outstretched hand** with the elbow extended or hyperextended. - Its significance lies in the potential for neurovascular complications due to its proximity to vital structures. *Radius-ulna fracture* - **Forearm fractures** involving the radius, ulna, or both are extremely common in children, often resulting from falls onto an **outstretched hand**. - The **distal radius** is a particularly frequent site of fracture in this age group.

Q: Which of the following is not considered a core diagnostic criterion for schizophrenia according to DSM-5?

Social withdrawal. ***Social withdrawal*** - While **social withdrawal** is a common clinical feature and often reflects negative symptoms in schizophrenia, it is **not specifically listed** as one of the **five core diagnostic criteria (Criterion A)** in DSM-5. - The five core symptom domains are: delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech, grossly disorganized or catatonic behavior, and negative symptoms (diminished emotional expression or avolition). - Social withdrawal may be a manifestation of negative symptoms or part of **social/occupational dysfunction (Criterion B)**, but it is not itself a distinct core diagnostic criterion. *Catatonia* - **Catatonic behavior** (such as stupor, catalepsy, waxy flexibility, posturing, or mutism) is explicitly included as part of the **fourth core diagnostic criterion**: "Grossly disorganized or catatonic behavior." - This makes it one of the five primary symptom domains in **Criterion A** of DSM-5. - Note: "Catatonia" as a **specifier** (requiring 3+ out of 12 symptoms) is different from catatonic behavior as a core symptom. *Hallucinations* - **Hallucinations** (most commonly auditory, but can be visual, tactile, olfactory, or gustatory) are the **second core diagnostic criterion** in DSM-5. - At least **two of the five core symptoms** must be present, and hallucinations fulfill this requirement as a key **positive symptom**. *Disorganized speech* - **Disorganized speech** (formal thought disorder) is the **third core diagnostic criterion** for schizophrenia. - Characterized by **derailment, tangentiality, incoherence, or loose associations**, it reflects significant disruption in organized thinking and communication.

Q: Ganser syndrome is classified under which of the following disorders?

Dissociative disorder. ***Dissociative disorder*** - Ganser syndrome is characterized by a "passing-off" behavior, where the individual gives **approximate or nonsensical answers** to simple questions, often associated with other dissociative symptoms. - While historically difficult to classify, contemporary understanding places it within the spectrum of dissociative disorders due to its features of an altered state of consciousness and a detachment from reality. *OCD* - **Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)** involves recurrent, intrusive thoughts (obsessions) and repetitive behaviors or mental acts (compulsions). - Ganser syndrome does not typically present with the classic symptom profile of obsessions and compulsions. *Conversion disorder* - **Conversion disorder** involves neurological symptoms (e.g., paralysis, blindness, seizures) that are not consistent with neurological disease and are often preceded by psychological stress. - While both involve psychological factors, Ganser syndrome is distinct in its presentation of "answers" that are close but incorrect, rather than physical symptoms. *Schizoid personality disorder* - **Schizoid personality disorder** is characterized by a pervasive pattern of detachment from social relationships and a restricted range of expression of emotions in interpersonal settings. - This disorder primarily affects social functioning and emotional expression, which is different from the specific cognitive and behavioral pattern seen in Ganser syndrome.

Q: Cyclothymia is classified as which type of mood disorder?

Bipolar mood disorder. ***Bipolar mood disorder*** - **Cyclothymia (Cyclothymic Disorder)** is classified under **Bipolar and Related Disorders** in both DSM-5 and ICD-11, making it part of the bipolar spectrum. - It is characterized by **chronic, fluctuating mood disturbances** lasting at least 2 years (1 year in children/adolescents) with numerous periods of hypomanic and depressive symptoms that do not meet full criteria for hypomanic or major depressive episodes. - The alternating, less severe mood swings share the fundamental **bipolar pattern** of mood elevation and depression, hence its classification under bipolar mood disorders. *Major depression* - **Major depressive disorder** is a unipolar mood disorder involving persistent feelings of sadness, loss of interest, and other depressive symptoms that significantly impair daily functioning, **without any episodes of mania or hypomania**. - Cyclothymia involves **mood instability with both elevated and depressed periods**, which distinguishes it from unipolar major depression. *Dysthymia* - **Dysthymia** (now termed **Persistent Depressive Disorder** in DSM-5) is characterized by chronic, low-grade depressive symptoms lasting at least 2 years, **without manic or hypomanic episodes**. - While both involve sub-threshold symptoms, cyclothymia includes periods of **hypomanic symptoms** (elevated mood, increased energy), which are absent in dysthymia. *Persistent mood disorder* - This is a broad, non-specific descriptive term rather than a formal diagnostic category in DSM-5 or ICD-11. - While cyclothymia is indeed a persistent condition, it is **specifically categorized under Bipolar and Related Disorders** due to the presence of both elevated (hypomanic) and depressed mood states.

Question 1

Intraocular pressure is increased by which anaesthetic?

Accepted Answer

Ketamine

Answer

Nitrous Oxide

Answer

Isoflurane

Answer

Propofol

Question 2

Turn-buckle cast is used for ?

Accepted Answer

Management of spinal deformities

Answer

Fracture of the humerus

Answer

Fracture of the femur

Answer

Cervical spine immobilization

Question 3

Characteristic of chronic eczema?

Accepted Answer

Lichenification

Answer

Erythema

Answer

Induration

Answer

Edema

Question 4

A young sexually active female presents with intense pruritus and watery discharge. What is the most likely causative organism?

Accepted Answer

Trichomonas vaginalis

Answer

Chlamydia trachomatis

Answer

Candida albicans

Answer

Gardnerella vaginalis

Question 5

The 'T' sign is associated with which condition?

Accepted Answer

Monochorionic twin pregnancy

Answer

Dichorionic twin pregnancy

Answer

Normal singleton pregnancy

Answer

Multiple gestation

Question 6

What is meant by 'Battledore insertion of placenta'?

Accepted Answer

Umbilical cord attached to the margin of the placenta

Answer

Placenta attached to the margin of the membranes

Answer

Placenta attached to the center of the uterus

Answer

Umbilical cord attached to the membranes

Question 7

Which of the following is NOT a common fracture in children?

Accepted Answer

Fracture of hand

Answer

Supracondylar humerus

Answer

Radius-ulna fracture

Answer

Lateral condyle humerus

Question 8

Which of the following is not considered a core diagnostic criterion for schizophrenia according to DSM-5?

Accepted Answer

Social withdrawal

Answer

Catatonia

Answer

Hallucinations

Answer

Disorganized speech

Question 9

Ganser syndrome is classified under which of the following disorders?

Accepted Answer

Dissociative disorder

Answer

OCD

Answer

Conversion disorder

Answer

Schizoid personality disorder

Question 10

Cyclothymia is classified as which type of mood disorder?

Accepted Answer

Bipolar mood disorder

Answer

Major depression

Answer

Dysthymia

Answer

Persistent mood disorder

NEET-PG 2013

Anesthesiology

Dental

Dermatology

Microbiology

Obstetrics and Gynecology

Orthopaedics

Psychiatry