Biochemistry
1 questionsWhich of the following statements about Maple Syrup Urine Disease (MSUD) is true?
NEET-PG 2013 - Biochemistry NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1051: Which of the following statements about Maple Syrup Urine Disease (MSUD) is true?
- A. FeCl3 turns navy blue
- B. Asymptomatic
- C. Deficiency of branched chain amino acid enzymes (Correct Answer)
- D. Hyperaminoaciduria of aromatic amino acids
Explanation: ***Deficiency of branched chain amino acid enzymes*** - MSUD is caused by a deficiency in the **branched-chain alpha-keto acid dehydrogenase complex (BCKDC)**, an enzyme responsible for metabolizing **leucine, isoleucine, and valine**. - This enzyme deficiency leads to the accumulation of these **branched-chain amino acids (BCAAs)** and their corresponding branched-chain alpha-keto acids in the body. *Asymptomatic* - MSUD is a severe metabolic disorder that is **not asymptomatic**; it typically presents with distinct neurological and metabolic symptoms shortly after birth. - Clinical manifestations can include **poor feeding, lethargy, seizures**, and a characteristic **maple syrup odor** in urine and earwax. *FeCl3 turns navy blue* - The **ferric chloride test (FeCl3 test)** in MSUD typically yields a **green-gray or dark-green color** when testing for the accumulation of alpha-keto acids (specifically alpha-ketoisocaproic acid). - A **navy blue color** with FeCl3 is more characteristic of **alkaptonuria** due to the presence of homogentisic acid. *Hyperaminoaciduria of aromatic amino acids* - MSUD is characterized by the accumulation and excretion of **branched-chain amino acids (leucine, isoleucine, valine)** and their corresponding keto acids. - **Hyperaminoaciduria of aromatic amino acids** (e.g., phenylalanine, tyrosine, tryptophan) is seen in other conditions like **phenylketonuria (PKU)**, not MSUD.
Internal Medicine
7 questionsWhich of the following is not a treatment option for hypercalcemia?
Which of the following conditions is associated with megaloblastic anemia?
Extraintestinal manifestations of Inflammatory bowel disease include all of the following, Except:
Which of the following is NOT an indication for a liver biopsy?
The common cause of subarachnoid hemorrhage is:
Which of the following is a common finding in patients with Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone Secretion (SIADH)?
Pea soup diarrhea is seen in -
NEET-PG 2013 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1051: Which of the following is not a treatment option for hypercalcemia?
- A. Strontium (Correct Answer)
- B. Bisphosphonates
- C. Steroids
- D. Phosphate
Explanation: ***Strontium*** - **Strontium ranelate** is primarily used in the treatment of **osteoporosis** to promote bone formation and inhibit bone resorption. - It does not have a recognized role in the acute or long-term management of **hypercalcemia** and could potentially worsen it due to its bone-targeting effects if not carefully managed. *Steroids* - **Glucocorticoids** are effective in treating hypercalcemia associated with **granulomatous diseases** (e.g., sarcoidosis) and certain malignancies (e.g., multiple myeloma) by reducing calcitriol production or tumor burden. - They decrease intestinal calcium absorption and increase renal calcium excretion in conditions where 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D is elevated. *Bisphosphonates* - **Bisphosphonates** (e.g., zoledronic acid, pamidronate) are potent inhibitors of **osteoclast-mediated bone resorption** and are a cornerstone in the treatment of moderate to severe hypercalcemia, especially due to malignancy. [1] - They are administered intravenously and act by inducing osteoclast apoptosis, thereby reducing the release of calcium from bone. [1] *Phosphate* - **Intravenous phosphate** can be used in severe, resistant hypercalcemia, as it promotes calcium deposition into bone and soft tissues, and forms insoluble calcium-phosphate complexes, thus lowering serum calcium. - Its use is limited due to risks of **ectopic calcification**, renal failure, and hypotension, and it is usually reserved for life-threatening situations where other treatments have failed.
Question 1052: Which of the following conditions is associated with megaloblastic anemia?
- A. Pernicious anemia (Correct Answer)
- B. Iron deficiency anemia
- C. Intestinal lymphatic ectasia
- D. Chronic kidney disease
Explanation: a and b - Megaloblastic anemia is commonly associated with **vitamin B12** [1] and **folate deficiencies** [2], which can occur due to various causes. - Conditions leading to malabsorption (such as those related to the gastrointestinal tract) contribute significantly to megaloblastic anemia [1, 2]. *ileal resection* - Ileal resection can indeed lead to **malabsorption** of vitamin B12 [1], particularly if the distal ileum is removed. - However, it is important to note that megaloblastic anemia specifically reflects a broader range of potential deficiencies, thus it is not an exclusive answer. *Crohn's disease* - Crohn's disease can cause **malabsorption** and result in vitamin B12 deficiency but is not a direct cause of megaloblastic anemia on its own. - The anemia may occur due to complications like **ileo-pouch anastomosis** rather than the disease itself. *Intestinal lymphatic ectasia* - This condition leads to **protein-losing enteropathy**, potentially causing deficiencies but not specifically leading to megaloblastic anemia. - The anemia associated with this condition is typically due to **hypoalbuminemia** and not a result of any vitamin deficiency directly.
Question 1053: Extraintestinal manifestations of Inflammatory bowel disease include all of the following, Except:
- A. Sclerosing cholangitis
- B. Skin nodules
- C. Osteoarthritis (Correct Answer)
- D. Uveitis
Explanation: ***Osteoarthritis*** - **Osteoarthritis** is a **degenerative joint disease** caused by wear and tear on cartilage, and it is **not** an extraintestinal manifestation of IBD [3]. - While patients with IBD can develop osteoarthritis, it does not share the same **pathophysiological link** to the inflammatory process of IBD as other extraintestinal manifestations. *Uveitis* - **Uveitis** is an inflammation of the **uvea** (middle layer of the eye) and is a well-recognized ocular extraintestinal manifestation of IBD [2]. - It can cause eye pain, redness, and blurred vision, and its severity may correlate with IBD disease activity. *Sclerosing cholangitis* - **Primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC)** is a chronic cholestatic liver disease characterized by inflammation and fibrosis of the **bile ducts**, and it is strongly associated with **ulcerative colitis** [1]. - It often progresses to **cirrhosis** and liver failure and is a significant extraintestinal manifestation. *Skin nodules* - **Erythema nodosum** and **pyoderma gangrenosum** are common cutaneous extraintestinal manifestations of IBD, often presenting as **painful red nodules** or ulcers on the skin [2]. - These skin conditions are thought to be immune-mediated and often parallel the activity of the underlying inflammatory bowel disease.
Question 1054: Which of the following is NOT an indication for a liver biopsy?
- A. Amoebic hepatitis (Correct Answer)
- B. Chronic hepatitis B and C
- C. Autoimmune hepatitis
- D. Wilson's disease
Explanation: ***Amoebic hepatitis*** - Liver biopsy is **not routinely indicated** for amoebic hepatitis as diagnosis is typically made through clinical history and serological tests. - The condition is usually managed with **medications** rather than requiring invasive procedures like a biopsy. *Wilson's disease* - Liver biopsy is important for assessing **copper accumulation** in Wilson's disease, establishing a diagnosis. - It may also provide information regarding the extent of **hepatocellular damage**. *Chronic hepatitis B and C* - In chronic hepatitis B and C, liver biopsy is crucial to evaluate the **degree of fibrosis** and hepatic inflammation. - It assists in determining the need for **antiviral therapy** and prognostication. *Autoimmune hepatitis* - Liver biopsy helps confirm the diagnosis of autoimmune hepatitis and assess the **severity of liver damage**. [1] - It also aids in monitoring the response to **immunosuppressive therapy**. [1] **Note on technique:** Percutaneous liver biopsy requires specific conditions for safety, such as cooperative patients and adequate coagulation profiles. [2]
Question 1055: The common cause of subarachnoid hemorrhage is:
- A. Arterio-venous malformation
- B. Cavernous angioma
- C. Aneurysm (Correct Answer)
- D. Hypertension
Explanation: ***Aneurysm*** - Aneurysms, particularly **saccular** or **berry aneurysms**, are the most frequent cause of **spontaneous subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH)**, accounting for about 80-85% of cases [2]. - The sudden rupture of an intracranial aneurysm leads to blood spilling into the **subarachnoid space**, causing characteristic symptoms like a "thunderclap headache" [1]. *Arterio-venous malformation* - While AV malformations (AVMs) can cause SAH, they are a less common cause than aneurysms, accounting for approximately 5-10% of cases. - AVMs are abnormal direct connections between arteries and veins that bypass the capillary system and can rupture, leading to SAH or intraparenchymal hemorrhage. *Cavernous angioma* - Cavernous angiomas are abnormal clusters of dilated, thin-walled capillaries that can lead to hemorrhage, but they primarily cause **intraparenchymal hemorrhage** rather than SAH. - They are much less likely to result in diffuse bleeding into the subarachnoid space compared to ruptured aneurysms. *Hypertension* - Hypertension is a significant risk factor for the formation and rupture of aneurysms [1], but it is not a direct cause of SAH itself in the same way an aneurysm rupture is. - While uncontrolled hypertension is often associated with **intracerebral hemorrhage** (bleeding within the brain tissue), its direct role in causing SAH is usually secondary to an underlying vascular abnormality like an aneurysm.
Question 1056: Which of the following is a common finding in patients with Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone Secretion (SIADH)?
- A. Ascites
- B. Normal BP (Correct Answer)
- C. Generalized edema
- D. Dry mucous membrane
Explanation: ***Normal BP*** - In SIADH, patients are typically **euvolemic** due to the primary issue being water retention rather than salt retention or frank dehydration [2]. - While hyponatremia occurs, the body's compensatory mechanisms usually prevent significant changes in blood pressure, maintaining it within the **normal range**. *Generalized edema* - Generalized edema is uncommon in SIADH because the excessive water retention is initially within the **intravascular compartment**, and the body attempts to excrete the additional volume of water [1]. - Although the patient is effectively retaining water, the osmolality is low, leading to fluid shifts rather than overt edema unless severe, protracted fluid overload occurs. *Ascites* - **Ascites**, which is the accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity, is not a characteristic feature of SIADH [2]. - Ascites is more commonly associated with conditions like **liver cirrhosis**, heart failure, or malignancy. *Dry mucous membrane* - **Dry mucous membranes** are a sign of dehydration and fluid volume deficit. - In contrast, SIADH involves **fluid overload** (though euvolemic), making dry mucous membranes an unlikely finding [2].
Question 1057: Pea soup diarrhea is seen in -
- A. Cholera
- B. Typhoid (Correct Answer)
- C. Yersinosis
- D. Hepatitis
Explanation: ***Typhoid*** - **Pea soup diarrhea** is a classic symptom of **typhoid fever**, caused by *Salmonella Typhi* [1]. - This characteristic stool is a greenish-yellow watery diarrhea due to inflammation and ulceration of the Peyer's patches in the small intestine [1]. *Cholera* - Characterized by **rice-water stools**, which are profuse, watery, and often contain flecks of mucus, resembling water in which rice has been rinsed [2]. - This type of diarrhea is due to the potent **cholera toxin** causing massive fluid and electrolyte secretion [2]. *Yersinosis* - Causes diarrhea that can range from watery to bloody, often associated with severe **abdominal pain** mimicking appendicitis. - While it can cause enterocolitis, the stool consistency is not typically described as "pea soup" like in typhoid. *Hepatitis* - Hepatitis primarily affects the **liver** and typically does **not cause diarrhea** as a prominent symptom. - Common symptoms include jaundice, dark urine, and pale stools due to impaired bilirubin metabolism.
Pharmacology
1 questionsA patient has Cushing syndrome due to an adrenal tumor. Which drug should be given?
NEET-PG 2013 - Pharmacology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1051: A patient has Cushing syndrome due to an adrenal tumor. Which drug should be given?
- A. Ketoconazole (Correct Answer)
- B. Spironolactone
- C. Hydrocortisone
- D. Dexamethasone
Explanation: ***Ketoconazole*** - **Ketoconazole** is an antifungal agent that also inhibits several enzymes involved in **steroidogenesis**, including 17α-hydroxylase and 11β-hydroxylase. - This action helps to reduce the overproduction of **cortisol** in Cushing syndrome caused by an adrenal tumor. *Hydrocortisone* - **Hydrocortisone** is a glucocorticoid itself and would exacerbate the symptoms of **Cushing syndrome** by adding to the already elevated cortisol levels. - It is used for **cortisol replacement therapy** in conditions like Addison's disease, where cortisol levels are low. *Dexamethasone* - **Dexamethasone** is a potent synthetic glucocorticoid used to suppress **ACTH production** in cases of ACTH-dependent Cushing's syndrome (e.g., Cushing's disease) or to diagnose Cushing's syndrome. - In an adrenal tumor, which is **ACTH-independent**, dexamethasone would not reduce cortisol production but could instead worsen the hypercortisolism. *Spironolactone* - **Spironolactone** is an **aldosterone antagonist** and a weak antiandrogen, primarily used for conditions like hyperaldosteronism, heart failure, and hirsutism. - It has no direct effect on the overproduction of **cortisol** from an adrenal tumor in Cushing syndrome.
Psychiatry
1 questionsWhich neurological condition is commonly associated with Alice in Wonderland Syndrome?
NEET-PG 2013 - Psychiatry NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1051: Which neurological condition is commonly associated with Alice in Wonderland Syndrome?
- A. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE)
- B. Epileptic seizures (Correct Answer)
- C. Cerebral hemorrhage
- D. Multiple sclerosis
Explanation: ***Epileptic seizures*** - **Alice in Wonderland Syndrome (AIWS)**, characterized by distortions of visual perception, body image, and sense of time, is often reported as an **aura or part of focal epileptic seizures**, particularly those originating in the temporal or parietal lobes. - The **transient and episodic nature** of AIWS symptoms aligns well with the paroxysmal electrical activity seen in epilepsy. *Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE)* - **SSPE** is a rare, fatal brain disorder caused by a persistent **measles virus infection**, primarily affecting children and young adults. - While it causes progressive neurological deterioration, including cognitive decline, motor dysfunction, and seizures, **Alice in Wonderland Syndrome** is not a characteristic or commonly associated symptom. *Cerebral hemorrhage* - A **cerebral hemorrhage** involves bleeding within the brain tissue, leading to acute neurological deficits depending on the location and size of the bleed. - Although it can cause a variety of symptoms, such as headache, weakness, and altered consciousness, **Alice in Wonderland Syndrome** is not a typical manifestation of acute hemorrhage. *Multiple sclerosis* - **Multiple sclerosis (MS)** is a chronic autoimmune disease affecting the central nervous system, leading to demyelination and neurological symptoms. - Common symptoms involve motor, sensory, visual, and cognitive deficits, but **Alice in Wonderland Syndrome** is not a recognized or common neurological manifestation of MS.