NEET-PG 2013 - Orthopaedics Practice Questions

Q: Most common cause of kyphotic deformity ?

Osteoporosis. ***Osteoporosis*** - **Osteoporosis** leads to vertebral compression fractures, particularly in the thoracic spine, which causes a gradual collapse of the vertebral bodies and an increase in the kyphotic curve. - This condition is very common, especially in **postmenopausal women** and the elderly, making it the most frequent cause of kyphotic deformity. *Trauma* - While significant **spinal trauma** can lead to kyphotic deformities, it is generally less common than the gradual kyphosis resulting from osteoporosis. - Traumatic kyphosis usually results from severe injuries leading to **vertebral body collapse** or neurological deficits. *Ankylosing spondylitis* - **Ankylosing spondylitis** can cause severe kyphosis, often referred to as a "bamboo spine," due to chronic inflammation and fusion of the vertebrae. - However, it is a less prevalent condition compared to **osteoporosis-related kyphosis**. *Rickets* - **Rickets**, a childhood bone disorder caused by **vitamin D deficiency**, can lead to bone deformities including kyphosis due to softened bones. - While a cause in children, its prevalence is lower than osteoporosis globally as a cause of kyphosis and it primarily affects a different age group.

Q: Pilon fracture is

Distal tibia Intraarticular fracture. ***Distal tibia Intraarticular fracture*** - A **pilon fracture** specifically refers to an **intra-articular fracture of the distal tibia**, involving the weight-bearing surface of the **ankle joint**. - These fractures typically result from high-energy axial loading mechanisms, driving the talus into the plafond and causing extensive articular damage. *Bimalleolar fracture* - A **bimalleolar fracture** involves fractures of both the **medial malleolus** (distal tibia) and the **lateral malleolus** (distal fibula). - While it involves the ankle, it does not necessarily involve the **tibial plafond** articular surface in the same destructive manner as a pilon fracture. *Trimalleolar fracture* - A **trimalleolar fracture** includes fractures of the medial, lateral, and **posterior malleolus** (a portion of the distal tibia). - Like bimalleolar fractures, it primarily describes the involvement of the malleoli rather than the intra-articular surface load-bearing portion of the distal tibia. *Proximal tibia fracture* - This term refers to a fracture occurring in the **upper part of the tibia**, near the knee joint. - It does not involve the **distal end of the tibia** or the ankle joint, which is characteristic of a pilon fracture.

Q: What is a Hangman's fracture?

Fracture dislocation of C2. ***Fracture dislocation of C2*** - A Hangman's fracture classically refers to a **bilateral fracture of the pars interarticularis of the axis (C2)**, often with an associated anterior subluxation of C2 on C3. - This injury is typically caused by **hyperextension-distraction forces**, such as those experienced in judicial hangings or motor vehicle accidents. *Subluxation of C5 over C6* - While cervical subluxations are serious, a **C5-C6 subluxation** does not specifically describe a Hangman's fracture. - This type of injury involves different vertebral levels and typically results from different mechanisms. *Fracture dislocation of ankle joint* - This option refers to an injury in the **lower limb**, completely unrelated to the cervical spine. - A Hangman's fracture is a specific type of **cervical vertebral fracture**. *Fracture of odontoid* - A fracture of the odontoid process involves the **dens (odontoid process)** of C2. - This is a distinct type of C2 fracture from a Hangman's fracture, which involves the **pars interarticularis**.

Q: What is the most common type of shoulder dislocation?

Anterior. ***Anterior*** - **Anterior shoulder dislocations** account for more than 95% of all shoulder dislocations due to the anatomical vulnerability created by the lack of structural support anteriorly. - The **humeral head** displaces anteriorly and inferiorly relative to the glenoid, often resulting from **abduction and external rotation** forces. *Subcoracoid* - **Subcoracoid dislocation** is a specific type of **anterior dislocation** where the humeral head specifically lies inferior to the coracoid process. - While it is a common presentation of anterior dislocation, "anterior" refers to the broader category and hence is the more encompassing and correct answer. *Subclavicular* - **Subclavicular dislocation** is an even rarer type of **anterior dislocation** where the humeral head is displaced medially, lying inferior to the clavicle. - This is a much less common variant compared to general anterior dislocations. *Posterior* - **Posterior shoulder dislocations** are rare, accounting for only 2-4% of all shoulder dislocations. - They are typically associated with specific mechanisms like **seizures**, **electric shock**, or a fall on an adducted, internally rotated arm.

Q: Whiplash injury is a tear of which ligament?

Post. longitudinal ligament. ***Post. longitudinal ligament*** - Whiplash injury, often caused by **hyperextension-hyperflexion** of the cervical spine, commonly results in a tear of the **posterior longitudinal ligament**. - This ligament is crucial for stabilizing the spine and preventing **hyperflexion**, making it vulnerable during sudden, forceful movements. *Ligamenta flava* - The **ligamenta flava** are located on the posterior aspect of the vertebral canal and are primarily composed of elastic tissue, providing flexibility. - While they can be injured in severe trauma, they are less commonly implicated in typical whiplash compared to the **posterior longitudinal ligament**. *Anterior longitudinal ligament* - The **anterior longitudinal ligament** is primarily involved in preventing **hyperextension** of the spine. - While it can be injured in whiplash, the hyperextension phase typically stresses this ligament, but the hyperflexion rebound phase is more damaging to posterior structures. *Supraspinal ligament* - The **supraspinal ligament** connects the tips of the spinous processes and primarily limits **flexion** of the spine. - While it can be strained during whiplash, it is not the primary ligament commonly torn in typical whiplash injuries, which often involve deeper spinal ligaments.

Q: Madelung's deformity is characterized by an abnormality in which bone?

Distal radius. ***Distal radius*** - **Madelung's deformity** is primarily characterized by a **malformation of the distal radius**, specifically the physis (growth plate). - This leads to abnormal growth, causing the **radius to shorten and bow** dorsally, resulting in a prominent distal ulna. *Humerus* - The **humerus** is the bone of the upper arm, and abnormalities of this bone are not characteristic of Madelung's deformity. - Conditions affecting the humerus typically involve the shoulder or elbow joint, distinct from the wrist pathology seen in Madelung's. *Proximal ulna* - The **proximal ulna** forms part of the elbow joint, and while the ulna can be affected, the primary abnormality in Madelung's is in the radius. - While the ulna may appear prominent, this is secondary to the radial deformity, not a primary issue of the proximal ulna. *Carpals* - The **carpal bones** are located in the wrist, distal to the radius and ulna, and are not the primary site of deformity in Madelung's. - While wrist motion may be affected, the underlying cause is the abnormal growth of the distal radius, which can then impact carpal alignment.

Q: Which of the following is NOT a complication of elbow dislocation?

Radial nerve injury. ***Radial nerve injury*** - The **radial nerve** is rarely injured in an elbow dislocation due to its anatomical course, which is less exposed to the shearing forces involved in this type of injury. - While other nerves like the ulnar and median nerves are more susceptible, significant stretching or compression of the radial nerve is **uncommon** in typical elbow dislocations. *Vascular injury* - The **brachial artery** runs in close proximity to the elbow joint and can be torn or compressed during a dislocation, leading to **ischemia** if not promptly recognized and treated. - This complication can result in **Volkmann's ischemic contracture** if perfusion is not restored. *Median nerve injury* - The **median nerve** passes anterior to the elbow joint and is vulnerable to injury from stretching or direct compression during dislocation. - Injury can manifest as **sensory deficits** in the distribution of the median nerve and **weakness** of forearm pronation and thumb flexion/opposition. *Myositis ossificans* - This is a common chronic complication of elbow dislocations, particularly in cases of **delayed reduction** or aggressive physical therapy. - It involves the **abnormal ossification** of soft tissues around the joint, commonly in the brachialis muscle, leading to **pain and restricted range of motion**.

Q: In an extension type of supracondylar fracture, what is the usual direction of displacement?

Posterolateral. ***Posterolateral*** - In an **extension type supracondylar fracture**, the distal fragment (forearm and hand) is typically displaced **posteriorly and laterally**. - This common displacement pattern is often caused by a **fall on an outstretched hand** with the elbow in extension, forcing the olecranon against the humerus. *Anteromedial* - This is an **uncommon displacement** in supracondylar fractures and is not characteristic of the extension type. - While displacement can have a medial or lateral component, the primary displacement in extension type is posterior. *Anterolateral* - Displacement in an anterior direction is typically seen in **flexion-type supracondylar fractures**, which are much rarer. - Even in flexion-type fractures, the lateral component of displacement is less common than medial. *Posteromedial* - While posterior displacement is characteristic of extension supracondylar fractures, a **posteromedial displacement** is encountered, but **posterolateral** is the *most common* pattern. - The varus force often involved in these injuries tends to promote lateral displacement of the distal fragment.

Q: Which of the following is NOT a common fracture in children?

Fracture of hand. ***Fracture of hand*** - While hand fractures can occur in children, they are generally **less common** compared to fractures of the long bones, especially those of the **upper extremity**, due to the types of activities and falls children typically experience. - The small bones of the hand are often better protected or less frequently exposed to severe direct trauma in routine childhood activities that lead to fractures elsewhere. *Lateral condyle humerus* - This is a common and often challenging fracture in children, particularly affecting those aged 6-10 years. - It usually results from a fall on an **outstretched hand**, with the elbow in extension. *Supracondylar humerus* - This is one of the **most common elbow fractures** in children and is typically due to a fall on an **outstretched hand** with the elbow extended or hyperextended. - Its significance lies in the potential for neurovascular complications due to its proximity to vital structures. *Radius-ulna fracture* - **Forearm fractures** involving the radius, ulna, or both are extremely common in children, often resulting from falls onto an **outstretched hand**. - The **distal radius** is a particularly frequent site of fracture in this age group.

Q: Bulge sign in the knee joint is seen after how much fluid accumulation?

< 30 ml. **< 30 ml** - The **bulge sign** is a sensitive test for detecting small amounts of **effusion** in the knee joint. - It is typically positive with as little as 4-8 mL to 10-30 mL of fluid, making "< 30 mL" the most appropriate answer. *100 ml* - An effusion of 100 mL is a **moderate to large amount** of fluid, which would typically elicit a positive **patellar tap test (ballottement)** rather than just a bulge sign. - The **bulge sign** is designed to detect much smaller effusions. *400 ml* - This represents a **very large effusion** that would be clinically obvious and cause significant swelling and discomfort, far exceeding the threshold for a simple bulge sign. - A knee with 400 mL of fluid would likely have a tense, bulging appearance and a very prominent **patellar tap**. *200 ml* - This is also a **significant effusion** that would easily be detected by a patellar tap test and would present with gross swelling. - The **bulge sign** is specifically for subtler fluid collections.

Question 1

Most common cause of kyphotic deformity ?

Accepted Answer

Osteoporosis

Answer

Trauma

Answer

Ankylosing spondylitis

Answer

Rickets

Question 2

Pilon fracture is

Accepted Answer

Distal tibia Intraarticular fracture

Answer

Bimalleolar fracture

Answer

Trimalleolar fracture

Answer

Proximal tibia fracture

Question 3

What is a Hangman's fracture?

Accepted Answer

Fracture dislocation of C2

Answer

Fracture dislocation of ankle joint

Answer

Fracture of odontoid

Answer

Subluxation of C5 over C6

Question 4

What is the most common type of shoulder dislocation?

Accepted Answer

Answer

Subcoracoid

Answer

Subclavicular

Answer

Posterior

Question 5

Whiplash injury is a tear of which ligament?

Accepted Answer

Post. longitudinal ligament

Answer

Ligamenta flava

Answer

Supraspinal ligament

Answer

Anterior longitudinal ligament

Question 6

Madelung's deformity is characterized by an abnormality in which bone?

Accepted Answer

Distal radius

Answer

Humerus

Answer

Proximal ulna

Answer

Carpals

Question 7

Which of the following is NOT a complication of elbow dislocation?

Accepted Answer

Radial nerve injury

Answer

Vascular injury

Answer

Median nerve injury

Answer

Myositis ossificans

Question 8

In an extension type of supracondylar fracture, what is the usual direction of displacement?

Accepted Answer

Posterolateral

Answer

Anteromedial

Answer

Anterolateral

Answer

Posteromedial

Question 9

Which of the following is NOT a common fracture in children?

Accepted Answer

Fracture of hand

Answer

Supracondylar humerus

Answer

Radius-ulna fracture

Answer

Lateral condyle humerus

Question 10

Bulge sign in the knee joint is seen after how much fluid accumulation?

Accepted Answer

< 30 ml

Answer

200 ml

Answer

100 ml

Answer

400 ml

NEET-PG 2013 — Orthopaedics