NEET-PG 2012 - Surgery Practice Questions

Q: Most common organism causing infection after an open fracture?

Staphylococcus aureus. ***Staphylococcus aureus*** - *Staphylococcus aureus* is the **most common organism** causing infection in **open fractures**, accounting for 30-40% of cases. - It is present on **skin flora** and readily contaminates traumatic wounds, making it the predominant pathogen in the immediate post-injury period. - **Antibiotic prophylaxis** for open fractures (cephalosporins) primarily targets *S. aureus*, reflecting its clinical importance. - It causes both **early and late infections** in open fractures and is the leading cause of **post-traumatic osteomyelitis**. *Pseudomonas* - *Pseudomonas aeruginosa* can cause infections in open fractures but is **not the most common** organism. - More frequently seen in **Type III open fractures** with extensive soft tissue damage, **nosocomial infections**, or **delayed infections** after hospitalization. - Associated with **contaminated water exposure** and **chronic wounds** rather than being the primary pathogen in acute open fractures. *Klebsiella* - *Klebsiella* species are typically associated with **nosocomial infections**, particularly **urinary tract infections** and **pneumonia**. - Rarely the primary pathogen in acute open fracture infections. - May be seen in **hospital-acquired** infections in patients with prolonged hospitalization. *Gonococcus* - **Gonococcus** (*Neisseria gonorrhoeae*) is primarily associated with **sexually transmitted infections** and can cause **septic arthritis** through hematogenous spread. - It does **not** cause infections in open fractures as it is not found in the environment or on skin. - The mode of transmission is completely unrelated to trauma or wound contamination.

Q: Which of the following is a common consequence of gastrectomy?

Iron deficiency. ***Iron deficiency*** - Gastrectomy often leads to **achlorhydria** or hypochlorhydria, reducing the conversion of **ferric iron** (Fe3+) to its more absorbable ferrous form (Fe2+). - Additionally, bypassing the duodenum, a primary site of iron absorption, further contributes to **iron malabsorption**. *Calcium deficiency* - While gastrectomy can contribute to calcium malabsorption due to reduced gastric acidity and faster transit, **iron deficiency** is typically a more direct and common initial consequence. - **Vitamin D deficiency**, often co-occurring with gastrectomy, is a more direct cause of **calcium malabsorption**. *Steatorrhoea* - **Steatorrhoea** (fat malabsorption) is more commonly associated with conditions affecting the **pancreas** or **small intestine** (e.g., celiac disease, chronic pancreatitis) rather than primarily gastrectomy unless there is significant bile salt malabsorption or rapid gastric emptying affecting nutrient mixing. - Although rapid transit post-gastrectomy can sometimes impair fat digestion, it's not the most common direct consequence compared to iron deficiency. *Fluid loss* - **Fluid loss** is usually an acute post-surgical complication or related to conditions causing vomiting or diarrhea, and not a common long-term consequence of gastrectomy itself. - While **dumping syndrome** can occur after gastrectomy, causing osmotic fluid shifts into the intestine, generalized chronic fluid loss is not a primary recognized long-term sequela.

Q: What is the investigation of choice for detecting recurrence after parathyroid gland surgery?

Sestamibi scan. ***Sestamibi scan*** - A **sestamibi scan** is the investigation of choice for **localizing recurrent or persistent hyperparathyroidism** because **parathyroid tissue preferentially retains the tracer** longer than thyroid tissue. - This nuclear medicine imaging technique helps identify ectopic or very small parathyroid adenomas, which may be difficult to locate with other methods. *SPECT* - **Single-photon emission computed tomography (SPECT)** can be used as an adjunct to a sestamibi scan (SPECT-Sestamibi) to provide 3D images and improve localization, but it is typically not the initial or standalone investigation of choice for recurrence. - While SPECT offers increased sensitivity and specificity over planar imaging by removing superimposed structures, the **sestamibi uptake itself is the crucial diagnostic marker**. *MRI* - **Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)** is generally used for detailed anatomical assessment of the neck and mediastinum, especially if there's concern for **ectopic glands or complex anatomy**. - However, it is less sensitive than sestamibi for detecting small or recurrent hyperactive parathyroid tissue due to its reliance on anatomical rather than functional abnormalities. *Neck ultrasound* - **Neck ultrasound** is an excellent initial imaging modality for primary hyperparathyroidism due to its **affordability and ability to visualize cervical parathyroid glands**. - For detecting recurrence, its utility is limited, especially in cases of **ectopic glands** (e.g., in the mediastinum) or if scar tissue hinders clear visualization.

Q: What is the standard intercostal space used for hepatic biopsy?

9th. ***Correct Option: 9th*** - The **9th intercostal space** in the mid-axillary line is the standard and most commonly used entry point for percutaneous liver biopsy. - This location provides safe access to the **right lobe of the liver** while avoiding injury to the **pleura** and **lungs** superiorly and minimizing risk to the **kidney** and other abdominal organs inferiorly. - At this level, the liver is sufficiently large and the approach avoids the pleural reflection, which typically descends to the 8th-9th intercostal space. - Standard surgical textbooks (Sabiston, Schwartz) recommend the **8th-10th intercostal space**, with the 9th being most frequently used. *Incorrect Option: 5th* - The **5th intercostal space** is far too high for liver biopsy and would result in puncturing the **lung** or **pleura**, causing **pneumothorax** or hemothorax. - This space is well above the liver margin and is not suitable for hepatic access. *Incorrect Option: 7th* - While the **7th intercostal space** may occasionally be mentioned, it is generally considered **too high** for routine percutaneous liver biopsy. - This level carries increased risk of **pleural injury** as the pleural reflection may extend to this level, especially during deep inspiration. - It is not the standard or preferred approach in current surgical practice. *Incorrect Option: 11th* - The **11th intercostal space** is too low and significantly increases the risk of injuring the **right kidney** or entering the peritoneal cavity with potential injury to bowel or other abdominal structures. - This space is below the optimal liver access zone and is not recommended for routine liver biopsy.

Q: Most common congenital diaphragmatic hernia is:

Bochdalek hernia. ***Bochdalek hernia*** - This is the most common type of **congenital diaphragmatic hernia (CDH)**, accounting for approximately **95% of all CDH cases**. - It occurs due to a defect in the **posterolateral diaphragm** (pleuroperitoneal membrane), typically on the **left side**. - Presents in neonates with respiratory distress due to herniation of abdominal contents into the thorax. *Morgagni hernia* - This is a rare type of **congenital diaphragmatic hernia**, occurring through the **anterior retrosternal diaphragm** (foramen of Morgagni). - Accounts for only **2-5% of all CDH cases**, usually on the right side. - Often asymptomatic and diagnosed incidentally in adults. *Paraesophageal hernia* - This is an **acquired hiatal hernia** where part of the stomach herniates alongside the esophagus through the esophageal hiatus. - While **hiatal hernias are the most common diaphragmatic hernias overall**, they are **not congenital** and therefore not the answer to this question. - Seen commonly in older adults. *None of the options* - Incorrect, as **Bochdalek hernia** is definitively the most common congenital diaphragmatic hernia.

Q: What are the metabolic consequences of ureterosigmoidostomy?

Hyperchloremic with hypokalemic acidosis. ***Hyperchloremic with hypokalemic acidosis*** - In ureterosigmoidostomy, the reabsorption of urinary constituents like **chloride** and **urea** from the bowel mucosa leads to **hyperchloremia**. - The exchange of **chloride** for **bicarbonate** and the concomitant loss of **potassium** from the colon results in **hypokalemic metabolic acidosis**. *Hyperkalemia* - Colonic reabsorption of urinary products typically causes **potassium wasting** and **hypokalemia**, not hyperkalemia. - While some potassium is reabsorbed, the overall effect due to the exchange for hydrogen ions and fluid loss from the colon is a net decrease in serum potassium. *Metabolic alkalosis* - Metabolic alkalosis involves an increase in **bicarbonate**, which is the opposite of what occurs in ureterosigmoidostomy where bicarbonate is lost. - The increased reabsorption of urea and chloride from the urine in the colon leads to an **acidic state** due to increased **hydrogen ion production** and **bicarbonate depletion**. *Hyponatremia* - Although some **sodium** reabsorption can occur, the primary electrolyte imbalances are related to chloride, potassium, and bicarbonate. - While some intestinal urinary diversion procedures can lead to hyponatremia due to volume changes or syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH), it is not the most characteristic or direct metabolic consequence of ureterosigmoidostomy itself.

Q: Which condition is commonly associated with complications arising from phimosis?

Inflammation of the glans and foreskin. ***Inflammation of the glans and foreskin*** - **Phimosis** (the inability to retract the foreskin) can lead to poor hygiene under the foreskin, creating an environment for bacterial or fungal growth. - This often results in **balanitis** (inflammation of the glans) or **balanoposthitis** (inflammation of both the glans and foreskin) due to retained secretions and microorganisms. *Inability to retract the foreskin* - This is the **definition** of phimosis, not a complication arising from it. - While it is the primary characteristic, it directly describes the condition itself rather than a subsequent problem. *Urethral opening on the underside of the penis* - This condition is known as **hypospadias**, a congenital anomaly of the urethra. - Hypospadias is a developmental issue and is unrelated to phimosis or its complications. *Narrowing of the urethral opening* - This condition is called **meatal stenosis** and refers to the narrowing of the external opening of the urethra. - While it can cause urinary symptoms, it is a distinct condition and not a direct complication of phimosis, although severe phimosis might indirectly impact urinary hygiene.

Q: The appearance described as an inverted champagne bottle is associated with which condition?

Lipodermatosclerosis. ***Lipodermatosclerosis*** - This condition presents with a characteristic "inverted champagne bottle" appearance, where the **ankle area is narrow** and the **calf area above it is wider** due to fibrotic changes and fat atrophy. - It's a severe manifestation of **chronic venous insufficiency**, characterized by **skin hardening**, pigmentation, and inflammation, often preceding venous ulceration. *Varicose veins (enlarged, twisted veins)* - While associated with **venous insufficiency**, varicose veins themselves are **dilated, tortuous superficial veins**, and do not typically cause the generalized lower leg shape change described. - They may cause swelling and discomfort but do not directly lead to the **fibrotic narrowing** seen in an "inverted champagne bottle" leg. *Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) (acute venous obstruction)* - DVT is an **acute condition** involving a **blood clot in a deep vein**, leading to sudden onset pain, swelling, and redness. - It does not cause the **chronic skin changes** and **fibrotic reshaping** of the calf and ankle that characterize lipodermatosclerosis. *Venous ulceration (open sores due to venous insufficiency)* - Venous ulcers are **open sores** that occur in severe chronic venous insufficiency, often found above the medial malleolus. - While they are a complication of the underlying venous disease that can also cause lipodermatosclerosis, the ulceration itself is a **skin lesion**, not the **overall inverted champagne bottle shape** of the leg.

Q: A female patient who underwent surgery for abdominal intestinal perforation presents on the 5th postoperative day with serous discharge and a gap in the wound. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Wound dehiscence. ***Wound dehiscence*** - This is the most likely diagnosis given the presentation of **serous discharge** and a **gap in the wound** on the 5th postoperative day. - **Abdominal intestinal perforation** surgery is a risk factor, and the timing is consistent with **fascial dehiscence**, which can lead to evisceration if left untreated. *Enterocutaneous fistula* - This involves a connection between the **bowel lumen** and the **skin surface**, typically discharging enteric contents (e.g., bile, stool), not just serous fluid. - While a possibility in complicated abdominal surgeries, the description of a "gap in the wound" and serous discharge is more indicative of a **structural failure** of the wound. *Seroma* - A seroma is a collection of **serous fluid** under the skin flap or surgical incision, presenting as a **fluctuant swelling**, but it typically does not involve a "gap in the wound." - It would not usually present with a wound **disruption** that exposes underlying tissue; instead, it's an intact pocket of fluid. *Peritonitis* - This is an **inflammation of the peritoneum**, usually caused by infection, and presents with **severe abdominal pain**, fever, and diffuse tenderness, which are not mentioned here. - While an intestinal perforation would initially cause peritonitis, the current presentation focuses on the **wound site** rather than systemic or diffuse abdominal symptoms.

Q: Which of the following is not considered a contraindication for pancreaticoduodenectomy?

Portal vein involvement. ***Portal vein involvement*** - While extensive portal vein invasion can make the procedure challenging, **segmental portal vein involvement without complete occlusion or direct invasion of the superior mesenteric artery** is often considered resectable with venous reconstruction and is not an absolute contraindication. - Advancements in surgical techniques and patient selection criteria allow for **safe resection and reconstruction of the portal vein** in carefully chosen cases, improving outcomes for patients who would otherwise be deemed inoperable. *Metastasis* - The presence of **distant metastases** (e.g., to the liver, peritoneum, or lungs) unequivocally indicates **Stage IV disease** and is an absolute contraindication to pancreaticoduodenectomy, as the surgery would not offer a curative benefit. - In such cases, systemic chemotherapy or palliative care is the more appropriate treatment approach, as resection would not alter the overall prognosis. *Stage III CA head of pancreas* - **Stage III carcinoma of the head of the pancreas** often implies **locally advanced disease** that involves major peripancreatic vessels, such as the superior mesenteric artery or celiac axis. - This level of extensive vascular involvement typically renders the tumor **unresectable**, making pancreaticoduodenectomy surgically unfeasible and a contraindication. *Extensive invasion of superior mesenteric vein* - **Extensive involvement of the superior mesenteric vein (SMV)**, particularly if it completely occludes the lumen or involves a long segment making reconstruction impossible, is generally considered a contraindication to pancreaticoduodenectomy. - While limited SMV involvement with reconstructive options might be resectable, **extensive, unreconstructable invasion** signifies locally advanced disease beyond surgical cure.

Question 1

Most common organism causing infection after an open fracture?

Accepted Answer

Staphylococcus aureus

Answer

Klebsiella

Answer

Pseudomonas

Answer

Gonococcus

Question 2

Which of the following is a common consequence of gastrectomy?

Accepted Answer

Iron deficiency

Answer

Calcium deficiency

Answer

Steatorrhoea

Answer

Fluid loss

Question 3

What is the investigation of choice for detecting recurrence after parathyroid gland surgery?

Accepted Answer

Sestamibi scan

Answer

SPECT

Answer

MRI

Answer

Neck ultrasound

Question 4

What is the standard intercostal space used for hepatic biopsy?

Accepted Answer

9th

Answer

5th

Answer

7th

Answer

11th

Question 5

Most common congenital diaphragmatic hernia is:

Accepted Answer

Bochdalek hernia

Answer

Morgagni hernia

Answer

None of the options

Answer

Paraesophageal hernia

Question 6

What are the metabolic consequences of ureterosigmoidostomy?

Accepted Answer

Hyperchloremic with hypokalemic acidosis

Answer

Hyperkalemia

Answer

Metabolic alkalosis

Answer

Hyponatremia

Question 7

Which condition is commonly associated with complications arising from phimosis?

Accepted Answer

Inflammation of the glans and foreskin

Answer

Inability to retract the foreskin

Answer

Urethral opening on the underside of the penis

Answer

Narrowing of the urethral opening

Question 8

The appearance described as an inverted champagne bottle is associated with which condition?

Accepted Answer

Lipodermatosclerosis

Answer

Varicose veins

Answer

Deep vein thrombosis

Answer

Venous ulceration

Question 9

A female patient who underwent surgery for abdominal intestinal perforation presents on the 5th postoperative day with serous discharge and a gap in the wound. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Wound dehiscence

Answer

Enterocutaneous fistula

Answer

Peritonitis

Answer

Seroma

Question 10

Which of the following is not considered a contraindication for pancreaticoduodenectomy?

Accepted Answer

Portal vein involvement

Answer

Metastasis

Answer

Extensive invasion of superior mesenteric vein

Answer

Stage III CA head of pancreas

NEET-PG 2012 — Surgery