NEET-PG 2012 - Pharmacology Practice Questions

Q: As per RNTCP guidelines, Multi drug resistance (MDR) TB is defined as resistance to:

Rifampicin and isoniazid. ***Rifampicin and isoniazid*** - According to **RNTCP guidelines** (now NTEP), **MDR-TB** is specifically defined as tuberculosis that is resistant to at least both **rifampicin** and **isoniazid**. - These two drugs are the **most potent first-line anti-TB medications**, and resistance to both significantly complicates treatment. *Rifampicin* - While resistance to **rifampicin alone** is a serious concern, it is classified as **rifampicin-resistant TB (RR-TB)**, not full **MDR-TB**. - **MDR-TB** requires resistance to at least two key first-line drugs. *Rifampicin, isoniazid and ethambutol* - Resistance to **rifampicin**, **isoniazid**, and **ethambutol** would be a form of **MDR-TB** (as it includes resistance to rifampicin and isoniazid), but it is a more extensive form of resistance. - The minimum definition of **MDR-TB** focuses on the two most crucial first-line drugs. *None of the above* - This option is incorrect because there is a specific definition for **MDR-TB** that aligns with one of the provided choices. - The guidelines clearly define **MDR-TB** based on resistance to specific drugs.

Q: What is the primary reason for using a combination of four drugs in Anti-Koch's Treatment (AKT) for tuberculosis?

To decrease the risk of resistance due to mutation.. ***To decrease the risk of resistance due to mutation*** - **Tuberculosis bacteria** can spontaneously develop resistance to a single drug through **random genetic mutations**. - Using multiple drugs simultaneously significantly reduces the probability that a bacterium will spontaneously develop resistance to **all drugs** in the regimen. - This is the **primary rationale** for multi-drug therapy in TB, as emphasized by WHO guidelines. *To decrease the risk of resistance due to conjugation* - **Conjugation** is a mechanism of horizontal gene transfer in bacteria, primarily involving the transfer of plasmids. - While important for antibiotic resistance in some bacteria, it is **not the primary mechanism** of resistance development in *Mycobacterium tuberculosis*. - TB resistance develops mainly through **chromosomal mutations**, not plasmid transfer. *To enhance overall treatment efficacy* - While multi-drug regimens do enhance treatment efficacy by targeting different bacterial populations (actively dividing, slow-growing, dormant), this is a **consequence** of the multi-drug approach. - The **primary reason** for using four drugs specifically is to prevent the emergence of **drug-resistant mutants**. - Enhanced efficacy is achieved *because* resistance is prevented, making this a secondary benefit. *To simplify treatment* - A four-drug regimen actually makes treatment more **complex** due to multiple pills, potential drug interactions, and increased side effects. - The complexity is a necessary trade-off for **resistance prevention** and treatment success.

Q: Which of the following is not a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor?

Buspirone. ***Buspirone*** - **Buspirone** is an anxiolytic that primarily acts as a **serotonin 5-HT1A receptor partial agonist**, not an SSRI. - It does not significantly affect the reuptake of serotonin, distinguishing it from SSRIs. *Fluoxetine* - **Fluoxetine** is a well-known and widely used **SSRI**. - It works by selectively inhibiting the reuptake of serotonin, thereby increasing its concentration in the synaptic cleft. *Fluvoxamine* - **Fluvoxamine** is another antidepressant classified as an **SSRI**. - It is often used for the treatment of **obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)** due to its strong serotonin reuptake inhibition. *Citalopram* - **Citalopram** is an **SSRI** frequently prescribed for depression and anxiety disorders. - Its mechanism involves potent and selective inhibition of **serotonin reuptake**.

Q: Which of the following medications does not interact with warfarin?

Benzodiazepines. ***Benzodiazepines*** - **Benzodiazepines** are generally considered safe to use with warfarin as they are extensively metabolized in the liver, but they do not typically alter the **cytochrome P450 enzymes** responsible for warfarin metabolism. - They also do not interfere with **vitamin K recycling** or **platelet function**, which are key mechanisms through which other drugs interact with warfarin. *Barbiturate* - **Barbiturates** are **potent inducers of hepatic enzymes**, particularly CYP2C9, which is responsible for metabolizing warfarin. - This enzyme induction leads to **increased warfarin metabolism**, reducing its anticoagulant effect and necessitating higher warfarin doses. *Oral contraceptive* - **Oral contraceptives** can **reduce the anticoagulant effect of warfarin** by inducing clotting factors or inhibiting warfarin metabolism. - This interaction can increase the risk of **thromboembolic events** in patients on warfarin. *Cephalosporins* - Certain **cephalosporins**, especially those with a **methylthiotetrazole (MTT) side chain** (e.g., Cefamandole, Cefoperazone, Moxalactam), can **inhibit vitamin K epoxide reductase**. - This inhibition leads to a **decrease in vitamin K-dependent clotting factors**, thus potentiating the anticoagulant effect of warfarin and increasing bleeding risk.

Q: Which of the following best describes a Type B adverse drug reaction?

Unpredictable bizarre reaction. ***Unpredictable bizarre reaction*** - Type B reactions are **unpredictable**, **bizarre**, and not directly related to the drug's known pharmacological actions. - They often involve **immunological reactions** or genetic predispositions, such as allergies or idiosyncratic responses. *Augmented effect of drug* - This describes a **Type A** adverse drug reaction, which is predictable and results from an **exaggerated pharmacological effect** of the drug. - It is typically dose-dependent and can be managed by adjusting the dosage. *Effect seen on chronic use of drug* - This description can apply to several types of adverse reactions, but it commonly relates to **Type C (chronic) reactions**, where effects occur only after prolonged exposure. - These reactions might be due to **cumulative toxicity** or adaptive changes in the body. *Delayed effect of drug* - This aligns with **Type D (delayed) adverse drug reactions**, which manifest long after the drug exposure has ended or after a period of latency. - Examples include **carcinogenesis** or teratogenesis, occurring months or years later.

Q: What is the standard amount of diphtheria toxoid in the DT vaccine?

30 Lf. ***30 Lf*** - The **DT vaccine** (pediatric diphtheria-tetanus vaccine) contains **30 Lf** of **diphtheria toxoid** per dose according to traditional formulations, along with tetanus toxoid. - This higher diphtheria toxoid content is standardized for vaccines administered to children younger than 7 years. - Note: Modern vaccine standards often express potency in **International Units (IU)** where ≥30 IU corresponds to approximately 15-25 Lf, though 30 Lf was the traditional specification. *5 Lf* - This reduced amount of diphtheria toxoid is present in adult formulations like **Tdap vaccine** and **Td vaccine** (typically 2-5 Lf). - The lower diphtheria toxoid content in adult vaccines is sufficient to maintain immunity in individuals with pre-existing immunity from childhood vaccination. *10 Lf* - This amount of diphtheria toxoid is not a standard specification for DT, Td, or Tdap vaccines. - Standard diphtheria toxoid amounts are typically 15-30 Lf for pediatric formulations (DT/DTP) and 2-5 Lf for adult formulations (Td, Tdap). *15 Lf* - While approximately 15 Lf may correspond to the minimum potency when measured in International Units (≥30 IU), the traditional standard specification for DT vaccine is **30 Lf**. - Vaccine formulations are precisely standardized to ensure optimal immunogenicity and safety.

Q: What is the best drug for open-angle glaucoma?

Latanoprost. Latanoprost - Latanoprost is a prostaglandin analog and is often considered a first-line treatment for open-angle glaucoma due to its efficacy in reducing intraocular pressure (IOP) and its once-daily dosing. - It works by increasing the outflow of aqueous humor through the uveoscleral pathway, thereby lowering IOP. Pilocarpine - Pilocarpine is a cholinergic agonist that causes miosis and ciliary muscle contraction [3], increasing the outflow of aqueous humor through the trabecular meshwork [4]. - While effective, its side effects (e.g., accommodative spasm, miosis) [1] and more frequent dosing make it generally a second-line or third-line agent for long-term management compared to prostaglandins. Physostigmine - Physostigmine is an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor that indirectly increases acetylcholine, mimicking cholinergic stimulation. - Although it can lower IOP, it is generally not used for open-angle glaucoma due to significant side effects and the availability of safer, more effective alternatives [1]. Apraclonidine - Apraclonidine is an alpha-2 adrenergic agonist [2] used primarily for short-term control of IOP, especially before or after ocular surgery, or as an adjunct therapy. - Its efficacy as a long-term monotherapy for open-angle glaucoma is limited by tachyphylaxis and potential for significant systemic side effects with chronic use.

Q: Which type of vaccine is used for chicken pox?

Live vaccine. ***Live vaccine*** - The chickenpox vaccine (Varicella vaccine) is a **live-attenuated vaccine**, meaning it contains a weakened form of the **Varicella-zoster virus** (Oka strain). - This weakened virus can still replicate in the body, stimulating a strong and long-lasting immune response similar to natural infection but without causing severe disease. *Killed vaccine* - **Killed (inactivated) vaccines** use viruses or bacteria that have been inactivated through heat or chemicals, making them unable to replicate. - While effective for some diseases (e.g., inactivated polio, influenza), they typically require **multiple doses** and might provide less durable immunity compared to live vaccines. *Conjugated vaccine* - **Conjugated vaccines** are designed to improve the immune response to polysaccharide antigens (e.g., bacterial capsules) by linking them to a carrier protein. - This technology is primarily used for **bacterial infections** like *Haemophilus influenzae* type b (Hib) or pneumococcal disease, not viral illnesses like chickenpox. *Toxoid vaccine* - **Toxoid vaccines** contain inactivated bacterial toxins (toxoids) rather than the whole organism. - Examples include **tetanus and diphtheria vaccines**, which protect against diseases caused by bacterial toxins, not viral infections like chickenpox.

Q: What is the recommended dosage for chloroquine chemoprophylaxis in malaria prevention?

500 mg once weekly. ***500 mg once weekly*** - The recommended dosage for chloroquine chemoprophylaxis in malaria prevention is **500 mg salt** (or equivalent to 300 mg base) administered **once weekly**. - This regimen ensures adequate blood concentrations to prevent malarial infection in endemic areas. *500 mg/week* - While the 500 mg dose is correct, simply stating "500 mg/week" without specifying "once weekly" could be misinterpreted. - Chloroquine is generally taken as a **single weekly dose**, not divided doses. *400 mg once weekly* - A dosage of **400 mg** is **sub-therapeutic** for weekly chloroquine chemoprophylaxis. - This dose would likely not provide sufficient protection against malaria. *500 mg BD/week* - Taking chloroquine **twice weekly (BD/week)** at 500 mg is excessive for chemoprophylaxis. - This regimen can lead to increased side effects and toxicity without providing additional prophylactic benefit.

Q: Which of the following is a synthetic estrogen?

Diethylstilbestrol. ***Diethylstilbestrol*** - **Diethylstilbestrol (DES)** is a **synthetic non-steroidal estrogen** that was historically used as a medication, particularly to prevent miscarriage. - Its use was discontinued after being linked to various adverse effects, including **vaginal clear cell adenocarcinoma** in female offspring whose mothers took DES during pregnancy. *Estrone* - **Estrone** is one of the three major **naturally occurring endogenous estrogens** in humans. - It is the primary estrogen during **menopause** and is derived from androstenedione. *Estriol* - **Estriol** is another of the three major **naturally occurring estrogens**, predominantly produced during **pregnancy** by the placenta. - It is often used as a marker for fetal well-being. *Estradiol* - **Estradiol** is the **most potent and abundant naturally occurring estrogen** in women during their reproductive years. - It plays a crucial role in the development and maintenance of female reproductive tissues and secondary sexual characteristics.

Question 1

As per RNTCP guidelines, Multi drug resistance (MDR) TB is defined as resistance to:

Accepted Answer

Rifampicin and isoniazid

Answer

Rifampicin

Answer

Rifampicin, isoniazid and ethambutol

Answer

None of the above

Question 2

What is the primary reason for using a combination of four drugs in Anti-Koch's Treatment (AKT) for tuberculosis?

Accepted Answer

To decrease the risk of resistance due to mutation.

Answer

To decrease the risk of resistance due to conjugation.

Answer

To enhance overall treatment efficacy.

Answer

To simplify treatment.

Question 3

Which of the following is not a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor?

Accepted Answer

Buspirone

Answer

Citalopram

Answer

Fluoxetine

Answer

Fluvoxamine

Question 4

Which of the following medications does not interact with warfarin?

Accepted Answer

Benzodiazepines

Answer

Barbiturate

Answer

Oral contraceptive

Answer

Cephalosporins

Question 5

Which of the following best describes a Type B adverse drug reaction?

Accepted Answer

Unpredictable bizarre reaction

Answer

Augmented effect of drug

Answer

Effect seen on chronic use of drug

Answer

Delayed effect of drug

Question 6

What is the standard amount of diphtheria toxoid in the DT vaccine?

Accepted Answer

30 Lf

Answer

5 Lf

Answer

10 Lf

Answer

15 Lf

Question 7

What is the best drug for open-angle glaucoma?

Accepted Answer

Latanoprost

Answer

Pilocarpine

Answer

Physostigmine

Answer

Apraclonidine

Question 8

Which type of vaccine is used for chicken pox?

Accepted Answer

Live vaccine

Answer

Killed vaccine

Answer

Conjugated vaccine

Answer

Toxoid vaccine

Question 9

What is the recommended dosage for chloroquine chemoprophylaxis in malaria prevention?

Accepted Answer

500 mg once weekly

Answer

500 mg/week

Answer

400 mg once weekly

Answer

500 mg BD/week

Question 10

Which of the following is a synthetic estrogen?

Accepted Answer

Diethylstilbestrol

Answer

Estrone

Answer

Estriol

Answer

Estradiol

NEET-PG 2012 — Pharmacology