NEET-PG 2012 Practice Questions

Q: Which of the following statements about halothane is false?

Constricts bronchii. ***Constricts bronchii*** - Halothane is a **bronchodilator** that relaxes bronchial smooth muscle, making it useful in patients with asthma or COPD. - The statement that it constricts bronchi is **false**. *Volatile liquid with sweet odour* - **Halothane** is a **volatile liquid** and is known for its characteristic **sweet, non-pungent odour**. - This property makes it well-tolerated during induction of anesthesia, particularly in pediatric patients. *Sensitises heart to adrenaline* - Halothane **sensitizes the myocardium** to the effects of **catecholamines**, including adrenaline (epinephrine). - This can lead to the development of **cardiac arrhythmias**, especially ventricular arrhythmias, when adrenaline is administered or endogenous levels are high. *Causes malignant hyperthermia* - Halothane is a potent trigger for **malignant hyperthermia**, a rare but life-threatening pharmacogenetic disorder. - This condition is characterized by a rapid and severe increase in body temperature, muscle rigidity, and metabolic derangements due to uncontrolled release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum.

Q: What is the initial treatment of choice for managing secondary hyperparathyroidism in patients with renal osteodystrophy?

Phosphate binders. ***Phosphate binders*** - **Phosphate binders** are the initial treatment because **hyperphosphatemia** is the primary driver of secondary hyperparathyroidism in renal disease, triggering parathyroid hormone (PTH) release [1]. - They work by binding dietary phosphate in the gastrointestinal tract, preventing its absorption and thus lowering serum phosphate levels [1]. *Cinacalcet* - **Cinacalcet** is a calcimimetic that increases the sensitivity of calcium-sensing receptors on the parathyroid gland, reducing **PTH secretion** [1]. - It is often used if **phosphate binders** and **vitamin D analogs** are insufficient in controlling PTH, making it a second-line treatment [1]. *Bisphosphonates* - **Bisphosphonates** are used to treat osteoporosis by inhibiting osteoclast activity and reducing bone resorption. - They are generally contraindicated in advanced renal osteodystrophy due to concerns about adynamic bone disease and are not an initial treatment for **secondary hyperparathyroidism**. *Calcium restriction* - While restricting dietary calcium might seem intuitive, **hypocalcemia** is often a problem in renal disease due to impaired vitamin D activation [1]. - Overly restricting calcium can worsen hypocalcemia, which would further stimulate PTH release, thus it is not an initial treatment for **secondary hyperparathyroidism**.

Q: Palmer sign is related to ?

Uterine contractions palpable through rectum during labor. ***Uterine contractions palpable through rectum during labor*** - **Palmer sign** refers to the palpation of **uterine contractions** through the rectum, particularly during the early stages of labor or even in simulated labor pains. - This sign is an indicator used to assess uterine activity, especially when vaginal examination might be less informative or desired. *Softening of the cervix during pregnancy* - This describes **Goodell's sign**, which is caused by increased vascularity and edema of the cervix during early pregnancy. - While an important sign of pregnancy, it is not referred to as Palmer sign. *Bluish discoloration of cervix and vagina* - This phenomenon is known as **Chadwick's sign**, resulting from increased blood flow to the reproductive organs during pregnancy. - It is an early indication of pregnancy but distinct from the uterine contraction palpation. *Increased pulsations in uterine arteries* - This is known as **Osiander’s sign** or **uterine souffle**, characterized by a soft blowing sound over the uterus due to increased blood flow through the uterine arteries. - It is a vascular sign of pregnancy and not related to uterine contractions felt rectally.

Q: In which scenario is the I-pill (emergency contraceptive) most appropriately used?

In case of contraceptive failure or unprotected sex. ***In case of contraceptive failure or unprotected sex*** - This is the **most comprehensive and appropriate answer** as it covers **both major indications** for emergency contraception. - The **I-pill (levonorgestrel)** is indicated when there has been unprotected intercourse OR when a contraceptive method has failed (e.g., condom breakage, missed pills, dislodged IUD). - It should be taken as soon as possible, ideally within **72 hours** of the event, though it can be used up to 120 hours with reduced efficacy. - This option correctly encompasses the full scope of emergency contraception use. *After unprotected sexual intercourse* - While this is a **valid indication**, it only covers one scenario and is not as comprehensive as the correct answer. - This option misses situations of contraceptive failure where intercourse was technically "protected" but the method failed. *When a contraceptive method fails* - This is also a **valid indication** but only covers contraceptive accidents (condom breakage, missed pills). - It excludes situations where no contraceptive was used at all. - Like the previous option, it is incomplete compared to the correct answer. *As a regular contraceptive method* - The I-pill is **not intended for routine contraception** due to higher hormone doses and lower efficacy compared to regular methods. - It has a higher side effect profile with frequent use and does not protect against sexually transmitted infections. - Emergency contraception should only be used occasionally in emergency situations.

Q: In which gestational weeks is Hegar's sign typically observed?

6 to 10 weeks. ***6 to 10 weeks*** - **Hegar's sign** is a softening of the lower uterine segment, which is a probable sign of pregnancy detected during a **bimanual examination**. - This softening typically becomes noticeable and palpable between **6 and 10 weeks of gestation** due to increased vascularity and edema in the area. *10-14 weeks* - While the uterus continues to soften and enlarge, **Hegar's sign** is usually established earlier, making it less specific or prominent for confirmation in this later window. - At this stage, other signs of pregnancy, such as a **palpable fetal outline** or **fetal heart tones**, become more readily apparent. *14-18 weeks* - By this gestational period, the uterus is significantly larger and has risen out of the pelvic cavity, making the specific assessment of the **lower uterine segment's compressibility** as an isolated sign less relevant. - **Fetal movements** (quickening) may also be felt during this time, serving as a more direct indicator of pregnancy. *18-22 weeks* - At these later weeks, the uterus is distinctly enlarged, and much of the diagnosis relies on **fundal height assessment** and further monitoring of fetal development. - **Hegar's sign** is a very early sign of pregnancy and would not be used for confirmation in this advanced stage.

Q: Vaginal pH before puberty is?

Neutral (around 7). ***Neutral (around 7)*** - Before puberty, the vagina lacks the influence of **estrogen**, which is essential for the colonization of **Lactobacillus** bacteria. - Without Lactobacillus, there is no significant production of lactic acid, resulting in a **neutral pH** environment. *Approximately 6* - A pH of approximately 6 is still slightly acidic but less so than a mature vagina. - This value is not typical for the prepubertal stage, which generally represents an environment without significant acidic production. *Approximately 4.5* - A pH of approximately 4.5 is characteristic of a **healthy, estrogenized adult vagina** where **Lactobacillus** bacteria produce lactic acid. - This acidic environment is crucial for protecting against pathogenic infections and is not found in prepubertal individuals. *Approximately 5* - A pH of approximately 5 is acidic, though less so than the optimal adult vaginal pH. - This value indicates some lactic acid production, which is minimal or absent before the onset of puberty.

Q: Which of the following statements about Asherman's syndrome is true?

Characterized by intrauterine adhesions. ***Characterized by intrauterine adhesions*** - **Asherman's syndrome** is fundamentally defined by the presence of **intrauterine adhesions** or scarring of the uterine cavity. - These adhesions develop following trauma to the basal layer of the endometrium, often from gynecological procedures like **dilation and curettage (D&C)**. - This is the **pathognomonic feature** that defines the syndrome. *Progesterone challenge test is positive* - The **progesterone challenge test** assesses the presence of an intact endometrium and adequate estrogen priming. - In Asherman's syndrome, due to the scarred endometrium, the response to progesterone is typically **absent or minimal**, leading to a **negative** result. - A negative progesterone challenge test indicates outflow obstruction or endometrial non-responsiveness. *May be secondary to TB* - While **genital tuberculosis** can cause intrauterine adhesions and is a recognized etiology, it represents a **small minority** of cases. - The primary etiology of Asherman's syndrome is usually **iatrogenic**, following uterine instrumentation such as D&C, particularly post-partum or post-abortion. - TB-related adhesions may have additional features like caseating granulomas. *Not associated with menstrual irregularities* - This is **false** - Asherman's syndrome is classically associated with **menstrual irregularities**. - Common presentations include **hypomenorrhea** (scanty periods), **amenorrhea** (absent periods), or oligomenorrhea. - These menstrual changes result from the reduced functional endometrium available for cyclical shedding due to intrauterine adhesions.

Q: Esophageal manometry is useful in diagnosing all of the following conditions EXCEPT:

Malignancy (not typically diagnosed with this test). ***Malignancy (not typically diagnosed with this test)*** - **Esophageal manometry** evaluates the **motor function** of the esophagus, measuring pressure changes during swallowing. - **Malignancy**, such as esophageal cancer, is primarily diagnosed with **endoscopy with biopsy** and imaging studies, not by assessing motility. *Achalasia (a motility disorder)* - **Esophageal manometry** is the **gold standard** for diagnosing achalasia, characterized by **absent peristalsis** in the esophageal body and **incomplete relaxation of the lower esophageal sphincter (LES)** [1]. - High-resolution manometry shows elevated **integrated relaxation pressure (IRP)** and often pan-esophageal pressurization. *Diffuse esophageal spasm (a motility disorder)* - This condition is also diagnosed by **esophageal manometry**, which reveals simultaneous, **non-peristaltic contractions** of high amplitude, often interspersed with normal peristalsis [1]. - It may also show **premature contractions** and **multiple rapid swallows** triggering spasm. *Assessment of esophageal motility prior to surgery for GERD* - **Manometry** is routinely performed before **anti-reflux surgery (e.g., Nissen fundoplication)** to rule out underlying esophageal motility disorders that could complicate surgery or worsen symptoms post-operatively [1]. - Identifying conditions like **achalasia** or **scleroderma** would contraindicate a standard fundoplication, as dysphagia could worsen [1].

Q: What type of burn is characterized by flash burn, tenderness, redness, and pain?

First degree burn. ***First degree burn*** - Characterized by **tenderness**, **redness**, and **pain** without blistering. - Involves only the **epidermis**, typically from a **flash burn** or brief contact with a hot object. *Scalded burn* - A type of burn caused by **hot liquid or steam**, not a characteristic of a specific burn depth. - Can be superficial or deep, depending on the **temperature** and **duration of exposure**. *Second degree burn* - Involves the **epidermis and dermis**, presenting with **blisters**, severe pain, and sometimes a wet, weeping appearance. - Often heals with scarring, unlike first-degree burns. *Fourth degree burn* - The most severe type of burn, extending through **all layers of skin** into underlying **muscle**, **tendons**, or **bone**. - Often appears charred or black, and victims may feel little pain due to extensive nerve damage.

Q: Hirschsprung disease is confirmed by ?

Rectal biopsy. ***Rectal biopsy*** - A **rectal biopsy** is the most definitive diagnostic test for Hirschsprung disease, revealing the absence of **ganglion cells** in the submucosal and myenteric plexuses. - This procedure involves taking a small tissue sample from the rectum, which is then examined under a microscope for characteristic histological changes. *Per/Rectal examination* - A **per/rectal examination** may reveal an empty rectum followed by a gush of stool and gas upon withdrawal of the finger, which is suggestive but not diagnostic. - It is a **clinical finding** that prompts further investigation but does not provide histological confirmation of aganglionosis. *Rectal manometry* - **Rectal manometry** measures pressures within the rectum and can detect the absence of the **rectoanal inhibitory reflex** (RAIR), a hallmark of Hirschsprung disease. - While highly sensitive, it is a **physiological test** indicating functional abnormalities, but it does not provide the definitive histological diagnosis of aganglionosis. *X-ray abdomen* - An **X-ray of the abdomen** may show dilated loops of bowel proximal to a narrowed, aganglionic segment, indicating intestinal obstruction. - This imaging study is useful for **initial assessment** and identifying signs of obstruction, but it is not specific for Hirschsprung disease and cannot confirm the absence of ganglion cells.

Question 1

Which of the following statements about halothane is false?

Accepted Answer

Constricts bronchii

Answer

Volatile liquid with sweet odour

Answer

Causes malignant hyperthermia

Answer

Sensitises heart to adrenaline

Question 2

What is the initial treatment of choice for managing secondary hyperparathyroidism in patients with renal osteodystrophy?

Accepted Answer

Phosphate binders

Answer

Cinacalcet

Answer

Bisphosphonates

Answer

Calcium restriction

Question 3

Palmer sign is related to ?

Accepted Answer

Uterine contractions palpable through rectum during labor

Answer

Increased pulsations in uterine arteries

Answer

Bluish discoloration of cervix and vagina

Answer

Softening of the cervix during pregnancy

Question 4

In which scenario is the I-pill (emergency contraceptive) most appropriately used?

Accepted Answer

In case of contraceptive failure or unprotected sex

Answer

When a contraceptive method fails

Answer

After unprotected sexual intercourse

Answer

As a regular contraceptive method

Question 5

In which gestational weeks is Hegar's sign typically observed?

Accepted Answer

6 to 10 weeks

Answer

10-14 weeks

Answer

14-18 weeks

Answer

18-22 weeks

Question 6

Vaginal pH before puberty is?

Accepted Answer

Neutral (around 7)

Answer

Approximately 6

Answer

Approximately 4.5

Answer

Approximately 5

Question 7

Which of the following statements about Asherman's syndrome is true?

Accepted Answer

Characterized by intrauterine adhesions

Answer

May be secondary to TB

Answer

Progesterone challenge test is positive

Answer

Not associated with menstrual irregularities

Question 8

Esophageal manometry is useful in diagnosing all of the following conditions EXCEPT:

Accepted Answer

Malignancy (not typically diagnosed with this test)

Answer

Achalasia (a motility disorder)

Answer

Diffuse esophageal spasm (a motility disorder)

Answer

Assessment of esophageal motility prior to surgery for GERD

Question 9

What type of burn is characterized by flash burn, tenderness, redness, and pain?

Accepted Answer

First degree burn

Answer

Scalded burn

Answer

Second degree burn

Answer

Fourth degree burn

Question 10

Hirschsprung disease is confirmed by ?

Accepted Answer

Rectal biopsy

Answer

Per/Rectal examination

Answer

Rectal manometry

Answer

X-ray abdomen

NEET-PG 2012

Anesthesiology

Internal Medicine

Obstetrics and Gynecology

Surgery