NEET-PG 2012 Practice Questions

Q: Identify the type of connective tissue present in the image.

Dense irregular. ***Dense irregular*** - The image shows **densely packed collagen fibers** arranged in an **irregular, haphazard fashion**, characteristic of dense irregular connective tissue. - This type of tissue provides **strength** and resistance to stress from multiple directions, found in the **dermis of the skin** and organ capsules. *Loose and irregular* - **Loose connective tissue** would show more ground substance and fewer, loosely arranged fibers, whereas this image displays high fiber density. - While it is "irregular" in fiber arrangement, the density of fibers rules out the "loose" classification. *Specialized* - **Specialized connective tissues** include cartilage, bone, blood, and adipose tissue, which have distinct cellular and extracellular matrix components not seen here. - This tissue lacks the specific cellular and matrix characteristics that would classify it as specialized (e.g., chondrocytes in lacunae, osteocytes, blood cells). *Dense regular* - **Dense regular connective tissue** features collagen fibers arranged in parallel bundles, providing strength in one direction. - Examples include **tendons and ligaments**, which are structurally organized in an orderly, aligned manner, unlike the displayed irregular arrangement.

Q: Ayre's T-piece is which type of circuit

Type E. ***Type E*** - The **Ayre's T-piece** is classified as a **Type E breathing circuit** according to the classification of Mapleson circuits. - It is a modification of the Mapleson A circuit, widely used in pediatric anesthesia due to its high efficiency and low resistance. *Type A* - **Mapleson A circuits** have the fresh gas flow (FGF) inlet near the patient and a reservoir bag at the circuit's most distal end. - While very efficient for spontaneous ventilation, they are not the same as an Ayre's T-piece. *Type B* - **Mapleson B circuits** have the fresh gas flow inlet and the reservoir bag near the patient, with the expiratory valve further away. - This configuration is generally inefficient for both spontaneous and controlled ventilation. *Type D* - **Mapleson D circuits** have the fresh gas flow inlet near the patient and the expiratory valve close to the reservoir bag, which is distal to the patient. - These circuits are commonly used for controlled ventilation, but are not the Ayre's T-piece.

Q: What is the maximum cumulative dose of isotretinoin for acne treatment?

120-150 mg/kg. ***120-150 mg/kg*** - The goal of **isotretinoin cumulative dosing** is to achieve long-term remission and reduce the risk of relapse. - A cumulative dose in the range of **120-150 mg/kg** has been shown to optimize treatment outcomes for severe or recalcitrant acne. *30-60 mg/kg* - This range is typically considered too low to achieve the optimal **cumulative dose** for sustained remission in severe acne. - Doses within this range might be used in some cases for milder forms of acne or in patients with significant side effects, but not as the standard maximum. *60-90 mg/kg* - While this is closer to an effective cumulative dose, it still often falls short of the recommended range for maximizing the long-term efficacy and reducing relapse rates in patients with severe forms of acne. - Studies suggest that higher cumulative doses correlate with better treatment success and fewer recurrences. *90-120 mg/kg* - This range is often considered a minimal target for a **cumulative dose**, especially at the higher end of the range (120 mg/kg). - While effective for many patients, aiming for the upper end (120-150 mg/kg) often provides a more robust and durable response, particularly in more severe or nodular acne.

Q: What is the initial drug of choice for a suspected case of acute adrenal insufficiency?

Hydrocortisone. ***Hydrocortisone*** - This is the initial drug of choice due to its **combined mineralocorticoid and glucocorticoid activity**, which effectively replaces the deficient hormones in acute adrenal insufficiency. - It also has a **rapid onset of action** crucial for stabilizing patients in an adrenal crisis. *Norepinephrine* - This is a **vasopressor** used to manage **severe hypotension or shock** by increasing peripheral vascular resistance. - While hypotension is a feature of adrenal insufficiency, norepinephrine does not address the underlying hormonal deficiency directly and is not the primary treatment. *Dexamethasone* - Dexamethasone is a **potent glucocorticoid** and can be used in adrenal insufficiency, but it lacks significant **mineralocorticoid activity**. - Its longer half-life might make it less ideal for immediate, titratable replacement compared to hydrocortisone in an acute setting. *Fludrocortisone* - Fludrocortisone is a **pure mineralocorticoid** primarily used for long-term replacement therapy to manage sodium and potassium balance in adrenal insufficiency. - It does not have sufficient glucocorticoid activity to address the immediate, life-threatening aspects of acute adrenal crisis.

Q: All are causes of anovulatory amenorrhea except which of the following?

Gonadal dysgenesis. ***Gonadal dysgenesis*** - This condition is a cause of **primary ovarian insufficiency**, leading to amenorrhea but not primarily due to anovulation in a previously cycling individual. - In gonadal dysgenesis, the **ovaries are malformed or absent**, resulting in a lack of follicles and thus no ovulation or estrogen production from the start. *PCOD* - **Polycystic Ovarian Disease** (PCOD/PCOS) is a common cause of anovulatory amenorrhea, characterized by **oligo- or anovulation**, clinical or biochemical hyperandrogenism, and polycystic ovaries on ultrasound. - The hormonal imbalance (e.g., elevated **androgens**, high **LH/FSH ratio**) disrupts normal follicular development and ovulation. *Hyperprolactinemia* - **Elevated prolactin levels** inhibit the pulsatile secretion of **GnRH (Gonadotropin-Releasing Hormone)** from the hypothalamus, which in turn reduces FSH and LH release from the pituitary. - This suppression of gonadotropins leads to impaired follicular development and **anovulation**, resulting in amenorrhea. *Drugs* - Various medications can cause anovulatory amenorrhea by interfering with the **hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian axis**. - Examples include antipsychotics (which can increase **prolactin levels**), certain antidepressants, opioids, and chemotherapy agents that can damage ovarian function.

Q: A child presents with recurrent pulmonary infections and hemoptysis due to associated bronchiectasis. Imaging shows unilateral loss of lung volume with hyperlucency on chest radiograph and reduced vascularity on CT scan of the chest. The abdominal organs are normally placed. What is the most likely cause?

Swyer-James-MacLeod syndrome. ***Swyer-James-MacLeod syndrome*** - This syndrome presents with **unilateral hyperlucent lung**, reduced vascularity, and bronchiectasis, often following a severe childhood respiratory infection, leading to air trapping and recurrent infections. - The imaging findings of **unilateral loss of lung volume**, hyperlucency, and reduced vascularity are classic for Swyer-James-MacLeod syndrome, which is also known as unilateral emphysema. *Immotile cilia syndrome* - This is a broader term that encompasses conditions like Kartagener syndrome, characterized by ciliary dysfunction leading to **recurrent sinopulmonary infections**; however, it does not typically present with unilateral hyperlucent lung or reduced vascularity. - While it causes bronchiectasis, the specific imaging findings described (unilateral hyperlucency) are not characteristic of isolated immotile cilia syndrome. *Kartagener syndrome* - This is a subgroup of primary ciliary dyskinesia that includes the classic triad of **situs inversus**, bronchiectasis, and sinusitis. The patient in the prompt has normally placed abdominal organs, ruling out situs inversus. - Although it involves recurrent pulmonary infections and bronchiectasis, the presence of **normally placed abdominal organs** and unilateral hyperlucency on imaging makes Kartagener syndrome less likely. *Mendelson syndrome* - This refers to **chemical pneumonitis** caused by the aspiration of gastric contents, typically during anesthesia or in patients with impaired consciousness. - It presents acutely with respiratory distress, hypoxemia, and diffuse infiltrates on imaging, which is inconsistent with the chronic presentation of recurrent infections and unilateral hyperlucency described.

Q: What is the most common complication of a large Patent Ductus Arteriosus (PDA)?

Congestive Heart Failure (CHF). ***Congestive Heart Failure (CHF)*** - A large PDA results in a significant **left-to-right shunt**, increasing pulmonary blood flow and leading to **pulmonary overcirculation**. [1] - This increased workload on the heart, particularly the left atrium and ventricle, can lead to **ventricular dysfunction** and ultimately CHF. [1] *Eisenmenger syndrome* - While a severe complication of an untreated large PDA, it represents a **late stage** where the left-to-right shunt has reversed due to **pulmonary hypertension**. [1] - It is not the *most common* initial complication, as CHF often develops earlier in the disease progression. *Infective endocarditis* - This is a potential long-term complication of a PDA, especially if untreated, due to the **turbulent blood flow** across the ductus. - However, it is less common than CHF, which results directly from the hemodynamic burden imposed by a large shunt. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because **Congestive Heart Failure** is indeed a very common and significant complication of a large Patent Ductus Arteriosus.

Q: "Sunray appearance" on X-rays is suggestive of:

An Osteogenic sarcoma. ***An Osteogenic sarcoma*** - The **"sunray appearance" (or sunburst)** on X-rays is a classic radiographic finding pathognomonic for **osteosarcoma**, especially in adults and adolescents. - This appearance is due to the **periosteal new bone formation** that grows perpendicular to the bone surface, creating a radiating spicule pattern. *A type of bone cancer that can show various radiographic appearances* - While true that bone cancers can show various appearances, the "sunray appearance" is specific enough to strongly point to a particular type, rather than just a general category. - This option is too broad and does not provide the most precise diagnosis indicated by the specific radiographic sign. *A metastatic tumour in the bone* - Metastatic bone lesions typically present with **lytic (bone destruction)** or **blastic (bone formation)** patterns, or a mixed pattern, but rarely produce the periosteal "sunray" appearance. - The characteristic radiographic finding for metastasis would often involve multiple lesions and different periosteal reactions, such as an **onion skin appearance** in some aggressive cases, but not typically sunray. *An Ewing's sarcoma* - Ewing's sarcoma commonly presents with an **"onion skin" periosteal reaction** due to multiple layers of new bone formation. - While both are primary bone tumors, the radiographic findings are distinctly different, allowing for differentiation.

Q: Diversion of urine is best done at

Ileum. ***Ileum*** - The **ileum** is the most commonly used segment for urinary diversion due to its **mobility**, adequate vascular supply, and low complication rates. - Its relatively **low absorptive capacity** for electrolytes, particularly urea and ammonia, minimizes metabolic disturbances. *Jejunum* - The **jejunum** has a high absorptive capacity, which can lead to significant **electrolyte imbalances** (e.g., hypochloremic, hypokalemic metabolic acidosis) when urine is diverted into it. - It is also more prone to **stomal stenosis** and bowel obstruction compared to the ileum. *Colon* - While the colon can be used, particularly in continent diversions, it has a **thicker wall** and can be less mobile, making surgical creation of a conduit more challenging. - Similar to the jejunum, it has a **higher absorptive capacity** than the ileum, which can lead to electrolyte disturbances. *Caecum* - The **caecum** is a possible site for continent urinary diversions (e.g., cecal pouch), but it is not typically used for simple incontinent conduits due to its **anatomical position** and surgical complexity. - Its use often requires additional procedures to ensure continence and prevent reflux.

Q: What is the most reliable diagnostic tool to differentiate between psychological and organic erectile dysfunction?

Nocturnal penile tumescence. ***Nocturnal penile tumescence*** - This diagnostic tool assesses whether a man experiences erections during sleep, which are naturally occurring physiological events. The presence of normal nocturnal erections indicates intact **neurovascular pathways** necessary for erection, suggesting that any daytime erectile dysfunction is likely due to **psychological factors** [2]. - Conversely, the absence of nocturnal erections points towards an **organic cause** for erectile dysfunction, as the physiological mechanism itself is impaired [1]. *Squeeze technique* - The squeeze technique is a behavioral therapy used to treat **premature ejaculation**, not erectile dysfunction. It involves stopping stimulation at the point of impending ejaculation and applying pressure to the glans to reduce arousal. - This technique does not provide any diagnostic information regarding the underlying cause (psychological vs. organic) of erectile dysfunction. *Sildenafil induced erection* - While sildenafil (Viagra) can induce an erection in many men with erectile dysfunction, its response does not reliably differentiate between psychological and organic causes. Sildenafil works by enhancing the effects of **nitric oxide**, leading to increased blood flow to the penis. - Both men with psychological erectile dysfunction and some with organic causes (e.g., mild vascular compromise) may respond to sildenafil, so a positive response does not rule out an **organic etiology**. *PIPE therapy* - "PIPE therapy" is not a recognized medical or diagnostic term for erectile dysfunction. It may be a typo or a misnomer. - Therefore, it does not serve as a diagnostic tool for differentiating between psychological and organic causes of erectile dysfunction.

Question 1

Identify the type of connective tissue present in the image.

Accepted Answer

Dense irregular

Answer

Loose and irregular

Answer

Specialized

Answer

Dense regular

Question 2

Ayre's T-piece is which type of circuit

Accepted Answer

Type E

Answer

Type A

Answer

Type B

Answer

Type D

Question 3

What is the maximum cumulative dose of isotretinoin for acne treatment?

Accepted Answer

120-150 mg/kg

Answer

30-60 mg/kg

Answer

60-90 mg/kg

Answer

90-120 mg/kg

Question 4

What is the initial drug of choice for a suspected case of acute adrenal insufficiency?

Accepted Answer

Hydrocortisone

Answer

Norepinephrine

Answer

Dexamethasone

Answer

Fludrocortisone

Question 5

All are causes of anovulatory amenorrhea except which of the following?

Accepted Answer

Gonadal dysgenesis

Answer

Hyperprolactinemia

Answer

Drugs

Answer

PCOD

Question 6

A child presents with recurrent pulmonary infections and hemoptysis due to associated bronchiectasis. Imaging shows unilateral loss of lung volume with hyperlucency on chest radiograph and reduced vascularity on CT scan of the chest. The abdominal organs are normally placed. What is the most likely cause?

Accepted Answer

Swyer-James-MacLeod syndrome

Answer

Immotile cilia syndrome

Answer

Kartagener syndrome

Answer

Mendelson syndrome

Question 7

What is the most common complication of a large Patent Ductus Arteriosus (PDA)?

Accepted Answer

Congestive Heart Failure (CHF)

Answer

Eisenmenger syndrome

Answer

Infective endocarditis

Answer

None of the options

Question 8

"Sunray appearance" on X-rays is suggestive of:

Accepted Answer

An Osteogenic sarcoma

Answer

A metastatic tumour in the bone

Answer

An Ewing's sarcoma

Answer

A type of bone cancer that can show various radiographic appearances

Question 9

Diversion of urine is best done at

Accepted Answer

Ileum

Answer

Jejunum

Answer

Colon

Answer

Caecum

Question 10

What is the most reliable diagnostic tool to differentiate between psychological and organic erectile dysfunction?

Accepted Answer

Nocturnal penile tumescence

Answer

PIPE therapy

Answer

Sildenafil induced erection

Answer

Squeeze technique

NEET-PG 2012

Anatomy

Anesthesiology

Dermatology

Internal Medicine

Obstetrics and Gynecology

Pediatrics

Radiology

Surgery