Anatomy
5 questionsCricoid cartilage lies at which vertebral level?
Development of labia majora is from -
Which structure(s) passes behind the inguinal ligament:
Ovarian fossa is formed by all except?
All are derived from ectoderm except for which of the following?
NEET-PG 2012 - Anatomy NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 81: Cricoid cartilage lies at which vertebral level?
- A. C3
- B. C6 (Correct Answer)
- C. T1
- D. T4
Explanation: **C6** - The **cricoid cartilage** is an important anatomical landmark, as it signifies the transition from the **laryngopharynx** to the **esophagus** and the start of the **trachea**. - Its location at **C6 vertebral level** is significant for procedures like tracheostomy and in identifying the narrowest part of the adult airway. *C3* - The C3 vertebral level is typically associated with the **hyoid bone**, which is superior to the cricoid cartilage. - The **epiglottis** and the superior aspect of the larynx are more commonly found at C3-C4. *T1* - The T1 vertebral level is in the **thoracic spine**, well below the neck, and is associated with the **apex of the lung** and the **first rib**. - The airway structures at this level are primarily the **trachea** as it enters the thorax. *T4* - The T4 vertebral level is significant as it marks the approximate location of the **carina**, where the trachea bifurcates into the main bronchi. - This level is much lower than the larynx and cricoid cartilage.
Question 82: Development of labia majora is from -
- A. Urogenital sinus
- B. Mullerian duct
- C. Genital ridge
- D. Genital swelling (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Genital swelling*** - The **labia majora** develop from the **genital (labioscrotal) swellings** in females, which are homologous to the scrotum in males [3]. - These swellings enlarge and fuse anteriorly to form the mons pubis and posteriorly to form the posterior commissures of the labia majora. *Urogenital sinus* - The **urogenital sinus** gives rise to structures like the **bladder**, **urethra**, and parts of the **vagina** in females [2]. - It does not contribute to the formation of the external labial structures. *Mullerian duct* - The **Mullerian (paramesonephric) ducts** develop into the **fallopian tubes**, **uterus**, and the **upper third of the vagina** [1], [2]. - These structures are internal reproductive organs and do not form external genitalia like the labia majora. *Genital ridge* - The **genital ridge** is the embryonic precursor to the **gonads** (ovaries or testes). - It differentiates into either ovaries or testes and does not directly form external genital structures.
Question 83: Which structure(s) passes behind the inguinal ligament:
- A. Femoral branch of genitofemoral nerve
- B. Femoral vein
- C. Psoas major
- D. All of the options (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Correct: All of the options*** All three structures pass deep to (behind) the inguinal ligament as they transition from the pelvis/abdomen into the thigh [1]. The inguinal ligament forms the superior border of the femoral triangle [1]. ***Femoral branch of genitofemoral nerve (Correct)*** - Pierces the **psoas major** muscle and descends along its anterior surface - Passes through the **lacuna musculorum** (lateral compartment) deep to the inguinal ligament - Lies **lateral to the femoral artery** - Provides sensory innervation to the skin over the femoral triangle ***Femoral vein (Correct)*** - Continuation of the popliteal vein from the lower limb - Passes through the **lacuna vasorum** (medial compartment/femoral canal) within the **femoral sheath** - Located **medial to the femoral artery** behind the inguinal ligament [1] - Carries deoxygenated blood back to the heart via the external iliac vein ***Psoas major (Correct)*** - Major hip flexor muscle originating from lumbar vertebrae (T12-L5) - Passes through the **lacuna musculorum** deep to the inguinal ligament - Located **lateral to the femoral vessels** - Combines with iliacus to form iliopsoas, inserting on the lesser trochanter of femur
Question 84: Ovarian fossa is formed by all except?
- A. Internal iliac artery
- B. Ureter
- C. Obliterated umbilical artery
- D. Round ligament of ovary (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Round ligament of ovary*** - The **round ligament of ovary** (ovarian ligament) connects the ovary to the lateral wall of the uterus and does NOT form any boundary of the ovarian fossa [1]. - It lies medial to the ovary and is not involved in forming the depression of the ovarian fossa [1]. - This ligament anchors the ovary but is separate from the peritoneal boundaries defining the fossa [1]. *Obliterated umbilical artery* - The **obliterated umbilical artery** (medial umbilical ligament) forms the **anterior boundary** of the ovarian fossa [2]. - This is a key anatomical landmark running along the lateral pelvic wall anterior to the ovary [2]. *Internal iliac artery* - The **internal iliac artery** forms the **posterior boundary** of the ovarian fossa [2]. - It lies on the lateral pelvic wall, deep and posterior to the ovarian fossa [2]. - This is one of the main structures defining the fossa's posterior limit [2]. *Ureter* - The **ureter** runs along the lateral pelvic wall and forms part of the **posterior/floor boundary** of the ovarian fossa [2]. - It passes posteroinferior to the ovary, contributing to the fossa's posterior limits [2].
Question 85: All are derived from ectoderm except for which of the following?
- A. Hair follicles
- B. Nails
- C. Lens of the eye
- D. Adrenal cortex (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Adrenal cortex*** - The adrenal cortex is derived from the **intermediate mesoderm**, specifically from the cells lining the posterior abdominal wall. The cells migrate to develop into the adrenal cortex. - It produces various steroid hormones, including **aldosterone**, **cortisol**, and **androgens**, which regulate diverse bodily functions. *Lens of the eye* - The lens of the eye is derived from the **surface ectoderm**. It forms from an invagination of the surface ectoderm called the lens placode. - Its primary function is to **focus light** onto the retina. *Hair follicles* - Hair follicles develop from the **surface ectoderm** [1]; they are invaginations of the epidermis that extend into the dermis. - They produce hair, which provides **insulation** and **protection** [1]. *Nails* - Nails are also derivatives of the **surface ectoderm**, forming thickened plates on the dorsal surface of the distal phalanges. - They provide **protection** to the fingertips and aid in grasping objects.
Biochemistry
1 questionsWhat is the classification of the Y chromosome?
NEET-PG 2012 - Biochemistry NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 81: What is the classification of the Y chromosome?
- A. Metacentric
- B. Submetacentric (Correct Answer)
- C. Acrocentric
- D. None of the options
Explanation: ***Submetacentric*** - The **Y chromosome** is classified as submetacentric because its **centromere** is located off-center, resulting in two arms of unequal length. - The short arm (Yp) is smaller than the long arm (Yq), but not as disproportionate as in acrocentric chromosomes. - The **X chromosome** is also submetacentric, making both sex chromosomes belong to this category. *Metacentric* - A **metacentric chromosome** has its **centromere** located in the middle, resulting in two arms of approximately equal length. - Examples include chromosomes 1, 3, 16, 19, and 20, which have nearly equal arm ratios unlike the Y chromosome. *Acrocentric* - An **acrocentric chromosome** has its **centromere** located very close to one end, creating one very short arm and one very long arm. - The five acrocentric human chromosomes are **13, 14, 15, 21, and 22**, which possess satellite DNA and nucleolar organizing regions (NORs) on their short arms. - The **Y chromosome is NOT acrocentric** despite historical confusion; it has a more centrally positioned centromere than true acrocentric chromosomes. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because the Y chromosome has a specific and well-established classification as **submetacentric** based on its centromere position and arm ratio.
Obstetrics and Gynecology
1 questionsBlastocyst makes contact with endometrium on ?
NEET-PG 2012 - Obstetrics and Gynecology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 81: Blastocyst makes contact with endometrium on ?
- A. < 3 days
- B. 5 - 7 days (Correct Answer)
- C. 8 - 11 days
- D. 15-16 days
Explanation: ***5-7 days*** - The **blastocyst makes initial contact** (apposition) with the **endometrium** around **day 5-6 after fertilization**. - **Implantation**, which includes adhesion and invasion, typically begins around day 6 and is complete by day 10. - This timeframe allows the blastocyst to travel from the fallopian tube to the uterus and for the uterine lining to be optimally prepared. *< 3 days* - Within the first few days after fertilization, the zygote is still undergoing **cleavage** and development into a **morula**, then a young blastocyst, while traveling down the fallopian tube. - It has not yet reached the uterus or developed sufficiently to interact with the endometrium. *8-11 days* - By 8-11 days, the process of implantation is usually **well underway or completed**, with the blastocyst already invading the endometrial wall. - Initial contact and attachment occur prior to this period. *15-16 days* - This timeframe is well beyond the typical window for initial blastocyst contact and implantation. - By 15-16 days post-fertilization, the embryo would be undergoing **gastrulation** and early organogenesis, assuming successful implantation.
Orthopaedics
1 questionsWhich of the following conditions can cause locking of the knee joint?
NEET-PG 2012 - Orthopaedics NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 81: Which of the following conditions can cause locking of the knee joint?
- A. Osgood Schlatter
- B. Tuberculosis of knee
- C. a and b both
- D. Loose body in knee joint (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Loose body in knee joint*** - A **loose body** (e.g., a fragment of cartilage or bone) can get trapped between the articular surfaces of the knee joint, mechanically obstructing its movement and causing sudden, painful **locking**. - This mechanical impingement prevents full extension or flexion of the knee until the loose body shifts, leading to episodic locking symptoms. *Osgood Schlatter* - This condition involves inflammation and potential avulsion of the **tibial tuberosity** where the patellar tendon inserts. - It primarily causes pain and swelling below the kneecap, especially during physical activity, but does not typically result in true mechanical locking of the joint. *Tuberculosis of knee* - **Tuberculosis of the knee joint** is an infectious arthritis that causes chronic pain, swelling, and gradual destruction of articular cartilage and bone. - While it can lead to pain and limited range of motion, it usually does not present with the sudden, intermittent mechanical locking characteristic of a loose body. *a and b both* - Neither **Osgood Schlatter** nor **Tuberculosis of the knee** typically cause the characteristic mechanical locking sensation described for a loose body in the joint. - Each of these conditions has distinct pathophysiological mechanisms and clinical presentations that do not involve a physical obstruction causing locking.
Pathology
1 questionsIn which organ are corpora amylacea typically observed in a pathological context?
NEET-PG 2012 - Pathology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 81: In which organ are corpora amylacea typically observed in a pathological context?
- A. Thymus
- B. Lymph node
- C. Spleen
- D. Prostate (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Prostate*** - **Corpora amylacea**, also known as prostatic concretions, are common, benign findings in the prostate gland, especially with increasing age. - They are composed of glycoproteins and often found within the **acini and ducts of the prostate**. *Thymus* - The thymus is known for **Hassall's corpuscles**, which are epithelial reticular cells arranged concentrically, playing a role in T-cell selection. - **Corpora amylacea** are not typically found in the normal thymus. *Lymph node* - Lymph nodes are characterized by their lymphoid follicles, germinal centers, and medullary cords. - While they can have various inclusions or changes in disease states, **corpora amylacea** are not a typical pathological finding in lymph nodes. *Spleen* - The spleen is primarily involved in filtering blood and immune responses, with distinct red and white pulp regions. - **Corpora amylacea** are not associated with the normal or pathological histology of the spleen.
Surgery
1 questionsWhat is the appropriate treatment for an incidentally detected appendicular carcinoid tumor measuring 2.5 cm?
NEET-PG 2012 - Surgery NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 81: What is the appropriate treatment for an incidentally detected appendicular carcinoid tumor measuring 2.5 cm?
- A. Right hemicolectomy (Correct Answer)
- B. Limited resection of the right colon
- C. Total colectomy
- D. Appendicectomy
Explanation: ***Right hemicolectomy*** - An appendiceal carcinoid tumor **larger than 2 cm** (or with **mesoappendix invasion, positive margins, or high-grade features**) warrants a right hemicolectomy due to a significantly higher risk of lymph node metastasis (20-30%). - This 2.5 cm tumor clearly exceeds the 2 cm threshold, making right hemicolectomy the standard of care. - This procedure ensures adequate oncological margins and removal of regional lymph nodes, which is crucial for complete treatment. *Limited resection of the right colon* - This option is insufficient for an appendiceal carcinoid of this size, as it may not remove all regional lymph nodes or provide adequate oncological margins. - Limited resection lacks the systematic lymphadenectomy required for tumors exceeding 2 cm. *Total colectomy* - This is an **overly aggressive** and unnecessary procedure for an isolated appendiceal carcinoid tumor, even one of this size. - Total colectomy is typically reserved for diffuse colonic involvement, multifocal tumors, or specific genetic syndromes, which is not indicated here. *Appendicectomy* - An appendicectomy alone is only appropriate for very small appendiceal carcinoid tumors, typically **less than 1 cm** in size, with negative margins and without evidence of mesoappendix invasion or aggressive features. - For a 2.5 cm tumor, the risk of regional lymph node involvement (20-30%) is too high for appendicectomy to be considered adequate oncological treatment.