NEET-PG 2012 Practice Questions

Q: What is the daily temperature variation in remittent fever?

> 1.0 °C. ***> 1.0 °C*** - In **remittent fever**, the temperature fluctuates by **more than 1.0 °C** (or 2°F) over a 24-hour period. [1] - Despite the significant variation, the temperature **never returns to normal** during the day. [1] *< 0.5 °C* - A variation of less than 0.5 °C (or 1°F) is more characteristic of a **sustained or continuous fever**, where the temperature remains elevated with minimal fluctuation. [1] - This pattern is seen in conditions like **typhoid fever** or **pneumonia**. * 2.0 °C* - While a variation greater than 2.0 °C would certainly fall under the definition of remittent fever (as it's > 1.0 °C), the defining lower limit for remittent fever is typically **> 1.0 °C (or 2°F)**. - A larger fluctuation might occur, but > 1.0 °C is the minimum threshold.

Q: Which of the following statements is MOST accurate regarding herpes encephalitis?

The temporal lobe is commonly involved.. ***The temporal lobe is commonly involved.*** - **Herpes simplex encephalitis (HSE)** characteristically targets the **temporal lobes** [1] and **orbitofrontal cortex**, leading to specific neurological deficits. - This predilection for the temporal lobes often results in symptoms such as **aphasia**, **seizures**, and **memory disturbances** [1]. *Focal neurological symptoms are common.* - While focal neurological symptoms such as **aphasia**, **hemiparesis**, and **seizures** are indeed common in HSE [1], this statement is less specific than the involvement of the temporal lobe. - The **localization** of the infection to the temporal lobes explains why these focal symptoms are so prevalent [1]. *MRI is a key diagnostic tool.* - **MRI findings**, particularly **T2-weighted** and **FLAIR sequences**, showing **edema** and **hemorrhage** in the temporal lobes and insular cortex, are highly suggestive of HSE. - However, the most definitive diagnostic tool remains the detection of **HSV DNA** in the **cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)** via **PCR**. *EEG findings are nonspecific and not diagnostic.* - **EEG** in HSE often shows **periodic lateralizing epileptiform discharges (PLEDs)** or **focal slowing** primarily over the temporal lobes, which are highly suggestive, although not entirely diagnostic on their own. - These findings can help guide further investigation and support a clinical diagnosis in conjunction with other tests.

Q: Which of the following is a characteristic feature of Crohn's disease?

Sinus & fistula. ***Sinus & fistula*** - **Transmural inflammation**, a hallmark of Crohn's disease, can extend through the bowel wall, leading to the formation of **sinus tracts** and **fistulae** (abnormal connections between organs or to the skin). [1] - These complications include enteroenteric, enterovesical, and perianal fistulae, which are highly characteristic of Crohn's. [1] *Continuous involvement* - Crohn's disease is characterized by **skip lesions**, meaning there are healthy segments of bowel interspersed with diseased segments, not continuous involvement. [1] - **Ulcerative colitis** typically presents with continuous inflammation, starting from the rectum and extending proximally. [1] *Mesenteric lymphadenitis* - While mesenteric lymph nodes can be involved in Crohn's disease due to inflammation, **mesenteric lymphadenitis** is more commonly associated with infectious etiologies or other inflammatory conditions, and not a primary defining characteristic. - It refers to inflammation of lymph nodes in the mesentery, which can cause abdominal pain but does not specifically differentiate Crohn's from other conditions. *Crypt abscesses* - **Crypt abscesses** are a characteristic histological feature of **ulcerative colitis**, where neutrophils infiltrate the glandular crypts. [1] - While they can occasionally be seen in Crohn's, they are much more common and prominent in ulcerative colitis and are not a defining feature of Crohn's.

Q: Tdap vaccine is given in between which weeks of pregnancy?

27-36 weeks. ***27-36 weeks*** - The **Tdap vaccine** is recommended during this window in **every pregnancy** to maximize the transfer of **maternal antibodies** to the fetus. - This timing provides effective protection against **pertussis (whooping cough)** for the newborn from birth until their own vaccinations begin. *10-16 weeks* - This period is generally too early for optimal **passive immunity transfer** to the fetus against pertussis. - While other vaccines might be considered, **Tdap is specifically timed later** for maximum antibody benefit. *17-22 weeks* - This window is also typically considered too early for the Tdap vaccine to provide the **highest level of antibody transfer** to the newborn. - The goal is to administer the vaccine when **maternal antibody levels peak closer to delivery**. *22-26 weeks* - While closer to the recommended timeframe, this still falls slightly outside the **optimal window (27-36 weeks)** for the Tdap vaccine. - Delaying slightly longer ensures **peak antibody levels** for the longest possible passive immunity.

Q: Most common bone for which nailing is done

Tibia. ***Tibia*** - The **tibia** is the most common long bone for which **intramedullary nailing** (IM nailing) is performed, particularly for fractures of the **tibial shaft**. - Its subcutaneous location and strong cortical bone make it amenable to this type of internal fixation, promoting stability and healing. *Radius* - Fractures of the **radius**, especially distal radial fractures, are more commonly treated with **plate and screw fixation** or external fixation, rather than intramedullary nailing. - While IM nailing can be used for some radial shaft fractures, it is not the most common bone for this procedure. *Ulna* - Like the radius, the **ulna** is less frequently fixed with intramedullary nails; **plate and screw fixation** is generally preferred for ulnar shaft fractures. - Its triangular cross-section and the presence of the interosseous membrane complicate IM nailing in some cases. *Humerus* - While **humeral shaft fractures** can be treated with intramedullary nailing, especially in comminuted or pathological fractures, it is overall less common than tibial nailing. - The risk of shoulder and elbow stiffness, as well as radial nerve injury, are considerations with humeral nailing.

Q: What is a common complication of joint tuberculosis?

Fibrous ankylosis. ***Fibrous ankylosis*** - Joint tuberculosis commonly leads to **fibrous ankylosis** due to chronic inflammation and destruction of articular cartilage, promoting the formation of fibrous tissue that limits joint movement. - This complication results from the body's attempt to heal the persistent inflammatory process, creating a stiff and immoveable joint. *Bony ankylosis* - While possible in severe, long-standing cases, **bony ankylosis** (fusion of bones) is less common in joint tuberculosis than fibrous ankylosis. - It typically occurs in diseases like **ankylosing spondylitis** or advanced rheumatoid arthritis, where new bone formation bridges joint spaces. *Normal healing* - **Normal healing** with full restoration of joint function is rare in untreated or late-diagnosed joint tuberculosis due to the destructive nature of the infection. - The disease often causes significant damage to cartilage and bone, precluding complete recovery without sequelae. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because **fibrous ankylosis** is a well-recognized and frequent complication of joint tuberculosis. - The chronic inflammatory response and tissue destruction inherent to the disease make complications highly probable.

Q: A baby is born at 27 weeks of gestation and required mechanical ventilation for 4 weeks and CPAP for 1 week. He was maintained on room air subsequently. Based on the new definition of Bronchopulmonary Dysplasia (BPD), and assuming he remained on room air at 36 weeks post-menstrual age, what is the most appropriate classification of his condition?

Mild BPD. ***Mild BPD*** - The infant required respiratory support (ventilation and CPAP) for an extended period (5 weeks total, far exceeding the 28-day oxygen requirement for BPD diagnosis). - Being on **room air at 36 weeks post-menstrual age** despite prior prolonged support classifies his condition as mild BPD according to the diagnostic criteria. - For infants born <32 weeks gestation, mild BPD is defined as needing oxygen for ≥28 days but breathing room air at 36 weeks PMA. *Moderate BPD* - Moderate BPD would be diagnosed if the infant still required **less than 30% oxygen (FiO2 0.22-0.29) at 36 weeks post-menstrual age**. - This infant was on room air (FiO2 0.21), indicating less severe lung disease than moderate BPD. *Severe BPD* - Severe BPD involves the ongoing need for **30% or greater oxygen (FiO2 ≥0.30)** and/or positive pressure support (CPAP/ventilator) at 36 weeks post-menstrual age. - This infant did not meet these criteria, as he was on room air without any support. *No BPD* - No BPD would require **less than 28 days of oxygen/respiratory support** during the neonatal period. - This infant required mechanical ventilation for 4 weeks and CPAP for 1 week (total 5 weeks = 35 days), clearly exceeding the 28-day threshold for BPD diagnosis. - Despite being stable on room air at 36 weeks PMA, the prolonged earlier support establishes the diagnosis of BPD (mild severity).

Q: Which of the following techniques uses piezoelectric crystals?

Ultrasonography. ***Ultrasonography*** - **Piezoelectric crystals** are the core component of **ultrasound transducers**, which generate and detect ultrasonic waves. - These crystals convert electrical energy into mechanical vibrations (sound waves) and vice-versa, allowing for the creation of images. *NMR imaging* - **NMR imaging** (Nuclear Magnetic Resonance, now commonly known as **MRI**) uses strong magnetic fields and **radiofrequency pulses** to generate images. - It relies on the magnetic properties of atomic nuclei, particularly hydrogen, rather than piezoelectric effects. *X-ray diffraction* - **X-ray diffraction** is a technique used to study the atomic and molecular structure of materials, and it involves the interaction of **X-rays** with the electron clouds of atoms. - It does not involve piezoelectric crystals; instead, it uses an X-ray source and a detector to measure diffracted X-rays. *Xeroradiography* - **Xeroradiography** is an older imaging technique that used **xerographic plates** coated with a photoconductive material (like selenium) to capture X-ray images. - It relies on electrostatic charges and dry development rather than piezoelectric crystals to produce images.

Q: What is a felon or whitlow?

Terminal pulp space infection. ***Terminal pulp space infection*** - A **felon**, also known as a **whitlow**, is a **closed-space infection** of the **digital pulp** of the fingertip, distal to the distal interphalangeal joint. - This area contains numerous fibrous septa that create multiple small compartments, which, when infected, can lead to increased pressure, severe pain, and potential **ischemic necrosis** of the bone. *Infection of the ulnar bursa* - An infection of the **ulnar bursa** involves the synovial sheath surrounding the flexor tendons of the medial three and a half digits, extending into the palm. - This condition is often referred to as **ulnar bursitis** or **tenosynovitis** and presents with distinct clinical signs, such as swelling in the palm and along the little finger, known as Kanavel's signs. *Infection of the radial bursa* - An infection of the **radial bursa** affects the synovial sheath around the flexor pollicis longus tendon of the thumb. - This condition is known as **radial bursitis** or **thenar space infection** and typically presents with swelling and tenderness confined to the thumb and thenar eminence. *Midpalmar space infection* - A **midpalmar space infection** occurs in the deep fascial space of the palm, located between the flexor tendons and the interosseous muscles. - This infection presents as diffuse swelling and tenderness in the central palm, often with pain on passive extension of the fingers, but does not involve the fingertip pulp directly.

Q: Spigelian hernia is

Through lateral border of rectus abdominis. ***Through lateral border of rectus abdominis*** - A **Spigelian hernia** protrudes through the **Spigelian aponeurosis**, which is the aponeurosis of the transversus abdominis muscle, primarily located along the **lateral border of the rectus abdominis muscle**. - Its typical location is often at the **semilunar line**, making it a challenging diagnosis due to its intermittent presentation and potential for strangulation. *Through linea alba* - A hernia through the **linea alba** (midline fibrous structure) is known as an **epigastric hernia** if above the umbilicus, or an **umbilical hernia** if at the umbilicus. - These are distinct from Spigelian hernias which are lateral to the rectus sheath. *Through lateral wall of inguinal canal* - This description typically refers to an **indirect inguinal hernia**, where the contents pass through the **deep inguinal ring**. - This type of hernia travels through the entire inguinal canal and emerges through the superficial ring. *Through medial wall of inguinal canal* - This would describe a **direct inguinal hernia**, which protrudes directly through the posterior wall of the inguinal canal, specifically through **Hesselbach's triangle**. - This is medial to the inferior epigastric vessels, while Spigelian hernias are more superior and lateral.

Question 1

What is the daily temperature variation in remittent fever?

Accepted Answer

> 1.0 °C

Answer

< 0.5 °C

Answer

< 1.0 °C

Answer

> 2.0 °C

Question 2

Which of the following statements is MOST accurate regarding herpes encephalitis?

Accepted Answer

The temporal lobe is commonly involved.

Answer

Focal neurological symptoms are common.

Answer

EEG findings are nonspecific and not diagnostic.

Answer

MRI is a key diagnostic tool.

Question 3

Which of the following is a characteristic feature of Crohn's disease?

Accepted Answer

Sinus & fistula

Answer

Mesenteric lymphadenitis

Answer

Continuous involvement

Answer

Crypt abscesses

Question 4

Tdap vaccine is given in between which weeks of pregnancy?

Accepted Answer

27-36 weeks

Answer

10-16 weeks

Answer

17-22 weeks

Answer

22-26 weeks

Question 5

Most common bone for which nailing is done

Accepted Answer

Tibia

Answer

Radius

Answer

Ulna

Answer

Humerus

Question 6

What is a common complication of joint tuberculosis?

Accepted Answer

Fibrous ankylosis

Answer

Bony ankylosis

Answer

Normal healing

Answer

None of the options

Question 7

A baby is born at 27 weeks of gestation and required mechanical ventilation for 4 weeks and CPAP for 1 week. He was maintained on room air subsequently. Based on the new definition of Bronchopulmonary Dysplasia (BPD), and assuming he remained on room air at 36 weeks post-menstrual age, what is the most appropriate classification of his condition?

Accepted Answer

Mild BPD

Answer

Moderate BPD

Answer

Severe BPD

Answer

No BPD

Question 8

Which of the following techniques uses piezoelectric crystals?

Accepted Answer

Ultrasonography

Answer

NMR imaging

Answer

X-ray diffraction

Answer

Xeroradiography

Question 9

What is a felon or whitlow?

Accepted Answer

Terminal pulp space infection

Answer

Infection of the ulnar bursa

Answer

Infection of the radial bursa

Answer

Midpalmar space infection

Question 10

Spigelian hernia is

Accepted Answer

Through lateral border of rectus abdominis

Answer

Through linea alba

Answer

Through lateral wall of inguinal canal

Answer

Through medial wall of inguinal canal

NEET-PG 2012

General Medicine

Internal Medicine

Obstetrics and Gynecology

Orthopaedics

Pediatrics

Radiology

Surgery