Dermatology
1 questionsWhat is the best method to treat a large port-wine stain?
NEET-PG 2012 - Dermatology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 801: What is the best method to treat a large port-wine stain?
- A. Radiotherapy
- B. Excision with skin grafting
- C. Pulsed dye laser (Correct Answer)
- D. Tattooing
Explanation: ***Pulsed dye laser*** - The **pulsed dye laser (PDL)** is considered the **gold standard** for treating port-wine stains due to its specific targeting of hemoglobin in the dilated capillaries without damaging surrounding tissue. - This treatment involves multiple sessions to progressively lighten the stain and prevent complications such as **nodularity** and **tissue hypertrophy**. *Radiotherapy* - **Radiotherapy** is generally not recommended for port-wine stains due to its potential for **scarring**, **pigment changes**, and risk of **malignancy**. - It is an aggressive treatment typically reserved for **cancerous conditions** or severe proliferative vascular lesions not amenable to other treatments. *Tattooing* - **Tattooing** involves injecting skin-colored pigments into the lesion to camouflage it, but it does not treat the underlying vascular abnormality. - This method can result in an **artificial appearance**, **uneven coverage**, and potential for **allergic reactions** or infections. *Excision with skin grafting* - **Surgical excision** of a large port-wine stain would result in a **significant scar** and require **skin grafting**, which carries risks of graft failure, poor aesthetic outcome, and color mismatch. - This method is generally reserved for very small, localized lesions or those with significant **nodular hypertrophy** that cannot be effectively managed by laser therapy.
Internal Medicine
6 questionsThe most common cause of pontine hemorrhage is
Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura is a syndrome characterized by which of the following?
Primary hyperparathyroidism is suggested by all of the following, except which of the following?
Which of the following is not a feature of Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)?
Antibodies most commonly seen in drug induced lupus are:
Which of the following is a characteristic feature of Crohn's disease?
NEET-PG 2012 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 801: The most common cause of pontine hemorrhage is
- A. Hypertension (Correct Answer)
- B. Diabetes
- C. Trauma
- D. Aneurysmal rupture
Explanation: Hypertension - **Chronic hypertension** leads to the weakening and rupture of small perforating arteries in the pons, making it the most common cause of **pontine hemorrhage** [1]. - The elevated pressure damages the **endothelium** and smooth muscle layers of these vessels, predisposing them to bleeding. *Diabetes* - While diabetes can cause microvascular complications, it is not considered the most common cause of **pontine hemorrhage**. - Its primary cerebral vascular complications include increased risk of **ischemic stroke** rather than hemorrhagic stroke in the pons. *Trauma* - **Traumatic brain injury** can cause various types of intracranial hemorrhage, but isolated **pontine hemorrhage** directly due to trauma is less common than that due to hypertension [1]. - Trauma typically results in contusions, subdural, or epidural hematomas, often in superficial brain regions. *Aneurysmal rupture* - **Aneurysmal rupture** is a common cause of subarachnoid hemorrhage, particularly from the Circle of Willis, but pontine hemorrhages are rarely caused by aneurysms within the pons itself [1]. - The vessels supplying the pons are typically small and perforating, not commonly forming dissecting or saccular aneurysms.
Question 802: Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura is a syndrome characterized by which of the following?
- A. Thrombocytopenia, anemia, neurological abnormalities, progressive renal failure and fever (Correct Answer)
- B. Thrombocytopenia, anemia, neurological abnormalities, progressive hepatic failure and fever
- C. Thrombocytopenia, normal anemia, neurological abnormalities, progressive renal failure and fever
- D. Thrombocytopenia, anemia, no neurological abnormalities, progressive renal failure and fever
Explanation: ***Thrombocytopenia, anemia, neurological abnormalities, progressive renal failure and fever*** - Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura is characterized by **thrombocytopenia** and **microangiopathic hemolytic anemia**, along with neurological and renal complications [1][2]. - The presence of **fever** and other systemic symptoms is consistent with this **thrombotic microangiopathy** syndrome [1]. *Thrombocytosis, anemia, neurologic abnormalities, progressive renal failure and fever* - This option incorrectly lists **thrombocytosis** rather than **thrombocytopenia**, which is a hallmark of thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) [1]. - While it includes anemia, the absence of thrombocytopenia makes it inconsistent with TTP's classic presentation [2]. *Thrombocytopenia, anemia, neurologic abnormalities, progressive hepatic failure and fever* - Although it correctly states **thrombocytopenia** and **anemia**, it incorrectly identifies **progressive hepatic failure** instead of **renal failure**, which is a key feature of TTP [1]. - The presence of neurological abnormalities and fever does align with TTP; however, the hepatic failure aspect is misleading. *Thrombocytosis, anemia neurologic abnormalities, progressive renal failure and fever* - Again, this option incorrectly notes **thrombocytosis**, contradicting the characteristic finding of **thrombocytopenia** found in TTP [1]. - While other features align with TTP's clinical picture, the thrombocytosis excludes this option from being correct [2]. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Kidney, pp. 947-948. [2] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Red Blood Cell and Bleeding Disorders, pp. 667-668.
Question 803: Primary hyperparathyroidism is suggested by all of the following, except which of the following?
- A. Increased serum calcium
- B. Low urinary calcium levels (Correct Answer)
- C. Increased urinary calcium
- D. Decreased PTH levels
Explanation: ***Low urinary calcium*** - In primary hyperparathyroidism, **urinary calcium levels are typically elevated** due to increased calcium reabsorption in the kidneys [2]. - **Low urinary calcium levels** would suggest a different condition, such as **hypoparathyroidism** or a renal issue affecting calcium excretion [5]. *Increased PTH* - Primary hyperparathyroidism is characterized by **elevated parathyroid hormone (PTH)** levels, as the parathyroid glands are overactive [1][3]. - High PTH contributes to increased serum calcium and bone resorption [2]. *Increased serum calcium* - A hallmark of primary hyperparathyroidism is **hypercalcemia**, resulting from increased bone resorption and renal tubular reabsorption of calcium [1][2]. - The condition often leads to symptoms such as **kidney stones** and **bone pain** due to elevated serum calcium levels [3][4]. *Increased C-AMP* - Elevated levels of **cyclic AMP (C-AMP)** in urine are observed in primary hyperparathyroidism due to the stimulatory effect of PTH on renal tubular reabsorption of calcium. - Increased C-AMP correlates with the action of PTH in promoting calcium release from the bones [2].
Question 804: Which of the following is not a feature of Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)?
- A. Recurrent abortion
- B. Sterility (Correct Answer)
- C. Psychosis
- D. Coomb's positive hemolytic anemia
Explanation: ***Sterility*** - While SLE can affect fertility due to **gonadal dysfunction** or **treatment-related factors**, it is not a *direct* or *defining feature* of the disease itself. - Sterility is a less common manifestation compared to the widespread organ system involvement that characterizes SLE [2]. *Recurrent abortion* - **Recurrent abortions** are a well-recognized complication in SLE, particularly when associated with **antiphospholipid syndrome**, which frequently co-occurs with SLE [1]. - **Antiphospholipid antibodies** can lead to thrombosis in placental vessels, causing fetal loss. *Psychosis* - **Psychosis** is a significant neuropsychiatric manifestation of SLE, classified under **neuropsychiatric lupus (NPSLE)**. - It can result from **inflammation**, **autoantibody effects**, or **ischemia** within the central nervous system. *Coomb's positive hemolytic anemia* - **Coomb's positive hemolytic anemia** is a common hematological complication in SLE, indicating the presence of **autoantibodies** against red blood cells [3]. - This **autoimmune destruction** of red blood cells leads to anemia, and a positive direct Coombs test confirms antibody sensitization [3].
Question 805: Antibodies most commonly seen in drug induced lupus are:
- A. Anti ds DNA Antibodies
- B. Anti Sm Antibodies
- C. Anti-Ro Antibodies
- D. Antihistone Antibodies (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Antihistone Antibodies*** - **Antihistone antibodies** are the most common laboratory finding, present in 95% of patients with **drug-induced lupus erythematosus (DIL)**. - This type of lupus is often triggered by medications such as **procainamide**, **hydralazine**, and **isoniazid**. *Anti ds DNA Antibodies* - **Anti-double-stranded DNA (dsDNA) antibodies** are highly specific for **systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)**, particularly severe cases, but are rarely seen in DIL. - High titers of anti-dsDNA often correlate with **lupus nephritis** and disease activity. *Anti Sm Antibodies* - **Anti-Sm antibodies** are highly specific for **SLE**, sometimes associated with neuropsychiatric manifestations, but are rarely identified in drug-induced lupus. - Their presence helps to confirm the diagnosis of SLE but not DIL. *Anti-Ro Antibodies* - **Anti-Ro (SSA) antibodies** are most commonly associated with **Sjögren's syndrome** and **neonatal lupus**, and can be seen in a subset of SLE patients, especially those with photosensitivity. - While they can be present in some forms of SLE, they are not the hallmark autoantibody for drug-induced lupus.
Question 806: Which of the following is a characteristic feature of Crohn's disease?
- A. Sinus & fistula (Correct Answer)
- B. Mesenteric lymphadenitis
- C. Continuous involvement
- D. Crypt abscesses
Explanation: ***Sinus & fistula*** - **Transmural inflammation**, a hallmark of Crohn's disease, can extend through the bowel wall, leading to the formation of **sinus tracts** and **fistulae** (abnormal connections between organs or to the skin). [1] - These complications include enteroenteric, enterovesical, and perianal fistulae, which are highly characteristic of Crohn's. [1] *Continuous involvement* - Crohn's disease is characterized by **skip lesions**, meaning there are healthy segments of bowel interspersed with diseased segments, not continuous involvement. [1] - **Ulcerative colitis** typically presents with continuous inflammation, starting from the rectum and extending proximally. [1] *Mesenteric lymphadenitis* - While mesenteric lymph nodes can be involved in Crohn's disease due to inflammation, **mesenteric lymphadenitis** is more commonly associated with infectious etiologies or other inflammatory conditions, and not a primary defining characteristic. - It refers to inflammation of lymph nodes in the mesentery, which can cause abdominal pain but does not specifically differentiate Crohn's from other conditions. *Crypt abscesses* - **Crypt abscesses** are a characteristic histological feature of **ulcerative colitis**, where neutrophils infiltrate the glandular crypts. [1] - While they can occasionally be seen in Crohn's, they are much more common and prominent in ulcerative colitis and are not a defining feature of Crohn's.
Pathology
1 questionsMost common CNS tumor associated with NF1
NEET-PG 2012 - Pathology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 801: Most common CNS tumor associated with NF1
- A. Optic glioma (Correct Answer)
- B. Astrocytoma
- C. Bilateral acoustic neuroma
- D. Optic nerve schwannoma
Explanation: ***Optic glioma*** - **Optic gliomas** (specifically **pilocytic astrocytomas**) are the most common CNS tumor found in association with **Neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF1)** [1]. - These tumors typically affect the **optic nerve** and can cause vision impairment. *Optic nerve schwannoma* - **Schwannomas** are tumors arising from Schwann cells, and while they can affect cranial nerves, an **optic nerve schwannoma** is very rare and not characteristic of NF1. - The most common schwannoma associated with neurofibromatosis is a **vestibular schwannoma** (acoustic neuroma) in NF2, not NF1 [2]. *Astrocytoma* - While optic gliomas are a type of astrocytoma, simply stating "astrocytoma" is too broad; the specific location (optic nerve) and type (pilocytic) are key in NF1 [1]. - Other types of astrocytomas (e.g., glioblastoma) are not typically associated with NF1 as the *most common* CNS tumor. *Bilateral acoustic neuroma* - **Bilateral acoustic neuromas** (vestibular schwannomas) are the hallmark CNS tumor of **Neurofibromatosis type 2 (NF2)**, not NF1 [2]. - This symptom strongly points to NF2, a distinct genetic disorder from NF1 [1]. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Central Nervous System, pp. 1319-1320. [2] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Manifestations Of Central And Peripheral Nervous System Disease, pp. 727-728.
Pharmacology
1 questionsWhat is the best skin disinfectant for central line insertion?
NEET-PG 2012 - Pharmacology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 801: What is the best skin disinfectant for central line insertion?
- A. Alcohol
- B. Cetrimide
- C. Chlorhexidine (Correct Answer)
- D. Povidone iodine
Explanation: ***Chlorhexidine*** - **Chlorhexidine (particularly >0.5% chlorhexidine in alcohol-based solution, such as 2% chlorhexidine in 70% isopropyl alcohol)** is the preferred antiseptic for central line insertion per **CDC guidelines**. - It provides **rapid onset of action**, persistent antimicrobial activity (lasting several hours), and broad-spectrum efficacy against gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria, fungi, and some viruses. - Superior to povidone-iodine in reducing catheter-related bloodstream infections (CRBSIs) in multiple studies. - Its mechanism involves disrupting bacterial cell membranes and coagulating intracellular contents, leading to sustained antimicrobial activity on the skin. *Povidone iodine* - **Povidone iodine** has a slower onset of action and is inactivated by organic matter (blood, serum), making it less effective for immediate, sustained disinfection compared to chlorhexidine. - While it has broad-spectrum activity, its residual effect is limited once it dries on the skin. - Studies show higher rates of catheter-related infections compared to chlorhexidine-based antiseptics. *Alcohol* - **Alcohol** (e.g., isopropyl alcohol or ethanol) provides good immediate microbial kill but lacks persistent activity, meaning its effect is short-lived as it evaporates quickly from the skin. - It works by denaturing proteins and dissolving lipids, but its rapid evaporation makes it insufficient as a sole agent for central line insertion. - Often used as a component in combination with chlorhexidine for optimal efficacy. *Cetrimide* - **Cetrimide** is a quaternary ammonium compound with antiseptic properties, but it has a narrower spectrum of activity and is less potent than chlorhexidine for surgical site preparation. - It is often used in combination with other agents or for general skin cleansing rather than for critical procedures like central line insertion. - Not recommended as a primary antiseptic for central venous catheter insertion.
Surgery
1 questionsWhat is the treatment of choice for anal carcinoma?
NEET-PG 2012 - Surgery NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 801: What is the treatment of choice for anal carcinoma?
- A. Chemotherapy alone
- B. APR combined with radiotherapy
- C. Chemoradiation (Correct Answer)
- D. All of the options
Explanation: ***Chemoradiation*** - This combined modality is the **standard of care** for most anal carcinomas, achieving high cure rates while preserving sphincter function. - The combination of **chemotherapy** (e.g., 5-fluorouracil and mitomycin C) and **external beam radiation** works synergistically to destroy cancer cells. *Chemotherapy alone* - **Chemotherapy alone** is generally insufficient as a primary treatment for anal carcinoma. - It is often used in combination with radiation or for **metastatic disease**, but not as a monotherapy for curative intent in localized disease. *APR combined with radiotherapy* - **Abdominoperineal resection (APR)** combined with radiotherapy is typically reserved for **recurrent** or **persistent anal carcinoma** after failed chemoradiation, or for very advanced tumors. - APR is a highly morbid surgery leading to a **permanent colostomy**, and primary chemoradiation aims to avoid this outcome. *All of the options* - As **chemoradiation** is the preferred first-line treatment and other options are either inadequate or reserved for specific situations, stating "all of the options" is incorrect. - The treatment strategy for anal carcinoma involves a nuanced approach, prioritizing **organ preservation** with effective cancer control.