ENT
1 questions65-year-old person with hearing loss with normal speech discrimination is suffering from?
NEET-PG 2012 - ENT NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 791: 65-year-old person with hearing loss with normal speech discrimination is suffering from?
- A. Noise induced hearing loss
- B. Presbycusis (Correct Answer)
- C. Ototoxic drug
- D. NOHL
Explanation: ***Presbycusis*** - **Presbycusis**, or age-related hearing loss, is characterized by a gradual, symmetrical, **sensorineural hearing loss** primarily affecting high frequencies. - Importantly, **speech discrimination** is typically preserved in the early and moderate stages of presbycusis, which aligns with the normal speech discrimination in a 65-year-old. *Noise induced hearing loss* - **Noise-induced hearing loss** is caused by exposure to loud noise and often presents with a characteristic **4 kHz notch** in the audiogram. - While it can cause sensorineural hearing loss, it's not exclusively defined by the age-related onset and might involve more significant **speech discrimination difficulties** depending on the severity and frequency range affected. *Ototoxic drug* - Hearing loss due to **ototoxic drugs** (e.g., aminoglycosides, cisplatin) typically manifests as a **bilateral, high-frequency sensorineural hearing loss** that can progress rapidly. - The history of **drug exposure** would be a key differentiating factor, and while speech discrimination can be affected, the lack of other specific details makes this less likely without further information. *NOHL* - **NOHL** is not a standard, recognized medical acronym for a specific type of hearing loss. - This option is likely a distractor and does not represent a known diagnosis fitting the described clinical picture.
Forensic Medicine
2 questionsWhat is the effect of strychnos nux vomica poisoning on a patient's consciousness?
The odour of cyanide is similar to?
NEET-PG 2012 - Forensic Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 791: What is the effect of strychnos nux vomica poisoning on a patient's consciousness?
- A. Becomes unconscious within an hour
- B. Becomes unconscious only in severe cases
- C. Remains conscious throughout the poisoning (Correct Answer)
- D. Becomes unconscious immediately after exposure
Explanation: ***Remains conscious throughout the poisoning*** - Patients poisoned with **strychnine** (from *Strychnos nux vomica*) typically remain **fully conscious** and aware of their surroundings, even during severe convulsions. - This preservation of consciousness amidst intense muscular spasms is a **distinguishing and agonizing feature** of strychnine poisoning. *Becomes unconscious within an hour* - This statement is generally incorrect for strychnine poisoning, as the prominent feature is maintained consciousness alongside **neurological excitability**. - Loss of consciousness is not a **primary or direct effect** of strychnine, though severe complications could indirectly affect it. *Becomes unconscious only in severe cases* - While extreme metabolic derangements or secondary complications (e.g., severe hypoxia from prolonged seizures) might eventually lead to altered consciousness, the **direct pharmacological action** of strychnine does not cause unconsciousness. - The patient remains conscious even through the most severe and life-threatening **tetanic spasms**. *Becomes unconscious immediately after exposure* - Strychnine primarily acts as an **antagonist to glycine receptors** in the spinal cord and brainstem, leading to exaggerated reflexes and muscle overactivity, not immediate unconsciousness. - The onset of symptoms, including muscular spasms, typically occurs within **15-30 minutes** of exposure, with consciousness generally preserved.
Question 792: The odour of cyanide is similar to?
- A. Rotten egg
- B. Fish
- C. Fruity
- D. Bitter almond (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Bitter almond*** - The classic description of **cyanide odor** is that of **bitter almonds**. This specific scent is a key indicator during forensic investigations or in cases of suspected poisoning. - However, not everyone can detect this smell due to a **genetic trait** that affects the ability to perceive it. *Rotten egg* - A **rotten egg** odor is characteristic of **hydrogen sulfide (H2S)**, a highly toxic gas. - This gas is often produced by the decomposition of organic matter and does not indicate cyanide exposure. *Fish* - A **fishy odor** is typically associated with compounds like **amines**, such as **trimethylamine**, which are found in decomposing fish or certain medical conditions like **trimethylaminuria**. - This smell is distinct from the bitter almond scent of cyanide. *Fruity* - A **fruity odor** can be associated with various substances, including **ketones** in conditions like **diabetic ketoacidosis** or certain **volatile organic compounds**. - This scent is not characteristic of cyanide poisoning.
Internal Medicine
6 questionsIn a severely anaemic pregnant patient presenting with cardiac failure, what is the most appropriate choice of transfusion?
What is a characteristic finding in athletes' hearts, also known as athletic syndrome?
Which biomarker is typically elevated in the plasma of patients with chronic heart disease?
A person experiences asthma attacks more than twice during the day and at least once during the night. What is the most likely classification of their asthma?
Which of the following is a renal-specific nephropathy associated with HIV?
Which of the following is a characteristic of Wilson's disease?
NEET-PG 2012 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 791: In a severely anaemic pregnant patient presenting with cardiac failure, what is the most appropriate choice of transfusion?
- A. Platelets
- B. Packed cells (Correct Answer)
- C. Whole blood
- D. Exchange transfusion
Explanation: ***Packed cells*** - **Packed red blood cells (PRBCs)** increase **oxygen-carrying capacity** with minimal volume expansion, which is crucial in patients with cardiac compromise [1]. - Slow infusion of PRBCs, often with a **diuretic**, can improve anaemia and cardiac function while preventing **fluid overload**. *Platelets* - **Platelets** are primarily transfused for **thrombocytopenia** or **platelet dysfunction** to prevent or treat bleeding. - They do not address the low haemoglobin and oxygen-carrying deficit directly contributing to cardiac failure in an anaemic patient. *Whole blood* - **Whole blood** contains plasma, which can significantly increase circulatory volume and worsen **cardiac failure** in patients already struggling with fluid balance. - While it does provide red cells, the added volume makes it a less safe option compared to packed cells in this scenario. *Exchange transfusion* - An **exchange transfusion** involves removing a patient's blood and replacing it with donor blood, typically used for severe conditions like **sickle cell crisis** or **severe hyperbilirubinemia** [2]. - This procedure is complex and carries higher risks, and is not the first-line treatment for anaemia-induced cardiac failure in pregnancy.
Question 792: What is a characteristic finding in athletes' hearts, also known as athletic syndrome?
- A. Increased amplitude of QRS (Correct Answer)
- B. Decreased QT interval
- C. U-waves
- D. Bradycardia
Explanation: ***Increased amplitude of QRS*** - In **athletes' hearts**, the heart muscle (myocardium) undergoes physiological adaptations, including **left ventricular hypertrophy**, which leads to an **increased amplitude of the QRS complex** on an ECG. - This is a normal and beneficial adaptation that enhances cardiac output and efficiency during exercise. *Bradycardia* - While **bradycardia** (a slower heart rate) is very common in athletes due to increased **vagal tone** and improved cardiac efficiency, it is not the most direct characteristic finding *on an ECG* reflecting the structural changes of athletic heart syndrome. - Bradycardia is a rate finding, not a waveform amplitude change reflecting myocardial mass. *Decreased QT interval* - A **decreased QT interval** is not a typical characteristic of an athlete's heart; in fact, there is usually no significant change or a slight prolongation due to bradycardia, but it remains within normal limits. - A pathologically short QT interval can indicate specific genetic channelopathies, which are unrelated to athletic adaptation. *U-waves* - **U-waves** are small positive deflections sometimes seen after the T wave, often associated with **bradycardia** or **hypokalemia**. - While athletes can have bradycardia, U-waves are not a consistent or defining feature of an athlete's heart syndrome itself, and their presence can also indicate other conditions.
Question 793: Which biomarker is typically elevated in the plasma of patients with chronic heart disease?
- A. Endothelin-1
- B. Troponin T
- C. B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) (Correct Answer)
- D. Cortisol
Explanation: ***B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP)*** - **BNP** is a hormone secreted by **ventricular cardiomyocytes** in response to increased wall stretch and pressure overload, making it a strong indicator of **myocardial stress** and **chronic heart failure** [1]. - Elevated levels correlate with the **severity of heart failure**, aiding in diagnosis and prognosis [1]. *Endothelin-1* - **Endothelin-1** is a potent **vasoconstrictor** involved in vascular tone regulation and endothelial dysfunction. - While it can be elevated in conditions like **pulmonary hypertension** and **atherosclerosis**, it is not a primary diagnostic biomarker for chronic heart disease in general. *Troponin T* - **Troponin T** is a cardiac-specific protein that is released into the bloodstream following **myocardial injury or necrosis**. - While it is a crucial biomarker for **acute coronary syndromes** (e.g., heart attack), persistently elevated levels are not typical for stable chronic heart disease unless there is ongoing subclinical myocardial damage. *Cortisol* - **Cortisol** is a **stress hormone** produced by the adrenal glands, involved in metabolism, immune response, and blood pressure regulation. - While chronic stress can impact cardiovascular health, cortisol itself is not a specific diagnostic biomarker for chronic heart disease.
Question 794: A person experiences asthma attacks more than twice during the day and at least once during the night. What is the most likely classification of their asthma?
- A. Intermittent asthma
- B. Mild persistent asthma
- C. Moderate persistent asthma
- D. Severe persistent asthma (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Severe persistent asthma*** - This classification is characterized by **frequent symptoms**, specifically asthma attacks occurring more than twice daily and at least once nightly. - Individuals with severe persistent asthma often experience significant limitations in their daily activities and may have a **FEV1 (forced expiratory volume in 1 second)** less than 60% of predicted. *Intermittent asthma* - This classification is characterized by symptoms occurring less than two days per week and **nighttime awakenings less than two times per month**. - Symptoms are generally well-controlled with a short-acting beta-agonist (SABA) as needed. *Mild persistent asthma* - Patients with mild persistent asthma typically experience symptoms more than twice a week but **less than once a day**, and **nighttime awakenings 3-4 times per month**. - Their lung function (FEV1) is usually 80% or more of predicted. *Moderate persistent asthma* - This category involves daily symptoms and **nighttime awakenings more than once per week but not nightly**. - Lung function (FEV1) in moderate persistent asthma typically falls between 60% and 80% of predicted.
Question 795: Which of the following is a renal-specific nephropathy associated with HIV?
- A. Focal Segmental Glomerulosclerosis (FSGS) (Correct Answer)
- B. Mesangioproliferative Glomerulonephritis
- C. Membranous Nephropathy
- D. Membranoproliferative Glomerulonephritis (MPGN)
Explanation: ### Focal Segmental Glomerulosclerosis - It is a common renal complication associated with **HIV infection**, characterized by **podocyte injury** and segmental sclerosis [1]. - Often results in **nephrotic syndrome**, presenting with significant **proteinuria** and edema, making it distinct in HIV renal pathology [1]. ### Membranous Glomerulonephritis - Typically presents with **subepithelial immune complex deposits**, leading to a different pathophysiological mechanism. - More commonly associated with other secondary causes, such as **drugs** or **infection**, rather than being specific to HIV. ### Mesangioproliferative Glomerulonephritis - Characterized by **mesangial cell proliferation and immune complex deposition**, often linked with various infections but not specifically with HIV. - Usually shows **hematuria** and mild proteinuria, lacking the severe nephrotic syndrome seen in focal segmental glomerulosclerosis. ### Membranoproliferative Glomerulonephritis - Features **proliferation of mesangial and endothelial cells**, leading to a distinctive pattern on renal biopsy, not specific to HIV. - Typically presents in other contexts such as **chronic infections** or **autoimmune diseases**, rather than predominantly with HIV.
Question 796: Which of the following is a characteristic of Wilson's disease?
- A. Increased copper in liver (Correct Answer)
- B. Autosomal dominant
- C. Increased serum ceruloplasmin
- D. Decreased copper excretion in urine
Explanation: ***Increased copper in liver*** - Wilson's disease is characterized by **accumulation of copper** in liver tissues due to defective copper transport [1]. - This excess leads to **hepatocellular damage**, resulting in liver dysfunction and potential cirrhosis [1]. *Decreased copper excretion in urine* - In Wilson's disease, there is actually **decreased excretion of copper**, which results in accumulation in the liver [1]. - **Urine copper levels** are typically low to normal in early stages because the liver fails to excrete excess copper effectively. *Autosomal dominant* - Wilson's disease is inherited in an **autosomal recessive** pattern, not dominant. - It is caused by mutations in the gene responsible for copper transport (ATP7B) [1]. *Increased serum ceruloplasmin* - Serum ceruloplasmin levels are often **decreased** in Wilson's disease due to impaired copper incorporation into this protein [1]. - Low ceruloplasmin is a key laboratory finding, contrasting the assertion of this option.
Pharmacology
1 questionsWhich of the following is not used as treatment for lymphatic filariasis -
NEET-PG 2012 - Pharmacology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 791: Which of the following is not used as treatment for lymphatic filariasis -
- A. DEC
- B. Albendazole
- C. Ivermectin
- D. Praziquantel (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Praziquantel*** - **Praziquantel** is primarily an **anthelmintic drug** effective against **schistosomiasis** and **tapeworm infections**. - It does not have a significant role in the treatment of **lymphatic filariasis**. *Ivermectin* - **Ivermectin** is one of the **mainstays** of treatment for **lymphatic filariasis**, particularly in combination therapies. - It works by paralyzing and killing **microfilariae**, reducing their numbers in the bloodstream. *DEC* - **Diethylcarbamazine (DEC)** is a **highly effective antifilarial drug** used to kill both **microfilariae** and **adult worms** in lymphatic filariasis. - It is often used in mass drug administration programs and for individual treatment. *Albendazole* - **Albendazole** is an **anthelmintic drug** often used in combination with **Ivermectin** or **DEC** for the treatment of **lymphatic filariasis**. - It helps to kill **microfilariae** and has some macrofilaricidal effects, reducing the viability of adult worms.