Dental
1 questionsWhat is the forensic method of identification that utilizes lip prints?
NEET-PG 2012 - Dental NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 741: What is the forensic method of identification that utilizes lip prints?
- A. Trichology
- B. Dactylography
- C. Poroscopy
- D. Cheiloscopy (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Cheiloscopy*** - **Cheiloscopy** is the scientific study of lip prints for human identification, based on the unique patterns of furrows on the human lips. - These patterns are considered individual and permanent, making them useful in forensic investigations. *Dactylography* - **Dactylography** is the study of fingerprints, which involves analyzing the unique patterns of ridges and furrows on the fingertips for identification. - It is one of the most widely used and reliable methods for personal identification in forensic science, but does not involve lip prints, *Poroscopy* - **Poroscopy** is a forensic technique that involves the examination of the pores on the ridges of fingerprints. - It is used to individualize fingerprints when there is insufficient ridge detail, but it focuses on pores, not lip prints. *Trichology* - **Trichology** is the scientific study of hair and scalp. - In forensics, it involves analyzing hair samples to determine characteristics such as origin, race, and presence of toxins, but not lip prints.
Forensic Medicine
3 questionsIn medical negligence cases, what is the primary role of the plaintiff?
La facies sympathique is seen in ?
Gastric lavage is contraindicated in which of the following?
NEET-PG 2012 - Forensic Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 741: In medical negligence cases, what is the primary role of the plaintiff?
- A. Files case in civil court (Correct Answer)
- B. Acts as defender
- C. Gives judgement
- D. Issues summons to defendant
Explanation: ***Files case in civil court*** - The **plaintiff** is the party who initiates a lawsuit, claiming to have been harmed by the actions of another party. - In medical negligence cases, this typically involves someone who alleges injury due to substandard medical care and seeks **compensation** through the legal system. - Filing the case in civil court is the **primary and defining role** of the plaintiff. *Acts as defender* - The **defender** (or defendant) is the party against whom a lawsuit is brought, and they are responsible for responding to the plaintiff's claims. - In medical negligence, the healthcare provider accused of negligence would be the defender. *Gives judgement* - Giving judgment is the function of the **court** or judge and is a neutral adjudication of the facts and application of the law. - The plaintiff's role is to present their case and evidence to persuade the court, not to issue the final decision. *Issues summons to defendant* - Issuing summons is a **court function**, not the plaintiff's role. - The court issues summons after the plaintiff files the case, directing the defendant to appear and respond to the allegations.
Question 742: La facies sympathique is seen in ?
- A. Hanging (Correct Answer)
- B. Strangulation
- C. Myocardial insufficiency
- D. Railway accident
Explanation: ***Hanging*** - **La facies sympathique** is a term used to describe the facial appearance in cases of **hanging**, characterized by a serene or peaceful look often associated with venous congestion rather than extreme distress. - This appearance is due to the obstruction of venous return from the head while arterial supply continues for a short period, leading to a relatively natural facial expression. *Strangulation* - **Strangulation** typically results in a more dramatic and distressed facial appearance, often with prominent signs of struggle, petechial hemorrhages, and cyanosis. - The compression of both arteries and veins, along with the trachea, leads to rapid and severe cerebral anoxia and overt signs of asphyxia. *Myocardial insufficiency* - **Myocardial insufficiency** (heart failure) usually presents with signs of impaired circulation, such as pallor, cyanosis (especially acrocyanosis), edema, and shortness of breath, but not a specific "sympathetic facies." - The facial expression would more likely reflect distress from dyspnea or discomfort rather than a serene appearance. *Railway accident* - Fatalities from **railway accidents** typically involve severe trauma, disfigurement, and extensive injuries to the head and body. - The facial appearance in such cases would be consistent with massive blunt force trauma, lacerations, or crush injuries, which are inconsistent with "la facies sympathique."
Question 743: Gastric lavage is contraindicated in which of the following?
- A. Organophosphorus Poisoning
- B. Dhatura poisoning
- C. Arsenic poisoning
- D. Kerosene poisoning (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Kerosene poisoning*** - Gastric lavage is contraindicated in **kerosene poisoning** due to the high risk of **aspiration pneumonitis**. - Kerosene is a **hydrocarbon**, and aspiration of even small amounts can cause severe lung damage. *Arsenic poisoning* - **Gastric lavage** can be performed in arsenic poisoning, especially if the ingestion occurred recently, to remove unabsorbed toxin. - Activated charcoal is less effective for arsenic, making lavage a more relevant intervention in acute settings. *Organophosphorus Poisoning* - Gastric lavage is generally recommended within an hour of ingestion for **organophosphorus poisoning** to remove the toxic substance. - This helps reduce systemic absorption and mitigate the severe **cholinergic crisis** caused by these agents. *Dhatura poisoning* - **Gastric lavage** is indicated in dhatura poisoning, particularly if presenting within a few hours of ingestion, to remove unabsorbed **atropine-like alkaloids**. - This helps in reducing the **anticholinergic effects** and improving patient outcomes.
Pharmacology
6 questionsWhich of the following is a selective progesterone receptor modulator?
Finasteride is classified as a:
Low molecular weight heparin mainly inhibits which factor?
What is the recommended dose of oseltamivir for a child aged 9 months?
Which of the following statements about vinca alkaloids is true?
Which of the following antineoplastic drugs SHOULD NOT be given by rapid IV infusion?
NEET-PG 2012 - Pharmacology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 741: Which of the following is a selective progesterone receptor modulator?
- A. Onapristone
- B. Ulipristal (Correct Answer)
- C. Nomegestrol
- D. Toremifene
Explanation: ***Ulipristal*** - **Ulipristal acetate** is a **selective progesterone receptor modulator (SPRM)** that acts as a progesterone receptor agonist/antagonist. - It is primarily used for **emergency contraception** and for the pre-operative treatment of **uterine fibroids**. *Onapristone* - **Onapristone** is an **antiprogestin** and a **progesterone receptor antagonist**, not a selective modulator. - It has been primarily investigated for its potential role in **breast cancer** treatment but is not approved for general clinical use. *Nomegestrol* - **Nomegestrol** is a **synthetic progestin** used in hormonal contraception. - It functions as a **progesterone receptor agonist** and does not exhibit selective modulation properties. *Toremifene* - **Toremifene** is a **selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM)**, not a progesterone receptor modulator. - It is used in the treatment of **estrogen receptor-positive metastatic breast cancer** in postmenopausal women.
Question 742: Finasteride is classified as a:
- A. 5-alpha reductase inhibitor (Correct Answer)
- B. Phosphodiesterase inhibitor
- C. Alpha-1 blocker
- D. Androgen receptor antagonist
Explanation: ### ***5-alpha reductase inhibitor*** - **Finasteride** specifically inhibits the enzyme **5-alpha reductase**, preventing the conversion of **testosterone** to **dihydrotestosterone (DHT)** [2], [4]. - This reduction in DHT is clinically useful for treating conditions like **benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)** and **androgenetic alopecia** [4]. ### *Phosphodiesterase inhibitor* - **Phosphodiesterase inhibitors** (e.g., sildenafil) typically work by increasing levels of **cyclic GMP**, leading to **vasodilation** and are used for **erectile dysfunction** [3]. - Their mechanism of action is distinct from finasteride's effect on **hormone metabolism**. ### *Alpha-1 blocker* - **Alpha-1 blockers** (e.g., tamsulosin) primarily relax **smooth muscle** in the prostate and bladder neck, improving **urine flow** in BPH [3], [5]. - They act on **adrenergic receptors** and do not affect **hormone synthesis** or **metabolism** [3]. ### *Androgen receptor antagonist* - **Androgen receptor antagonists** (e.g., flutamide) directly block the binding of **androgens** (like testosterone and DHT) to their receptors [1], [4]. - While they also affect androgen action, their mechanism is different from finasteride's **enzyme inhibition** [4].
Question 743: Low molecular weight heparin mainly inhibits which factor?
- A. Factor VIIIa
- B. Factor Xa (Correct Answer)
- C. Factor XIIa
- D. Factor IIa
Explanation: ***Factor Xa*** - Low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) primarily exerts its anticoagulant effect by binding to **antithrombin III** and increasing its inhibitory activity against **Factor Xa**. - This selective inhibition of Factor Xa, rather than Factor IIa (thrombin), accounts for its more predictable anticoagulant response and lower risk of bleeding compared to unfractionated heparin. *Factor VIIIa* - **Factor VIIIa** is a cofactor in the intrinsic pathway, crucial for activating Factor X, but it is not directly inhibited by LMWH. - Its inhibition is more characteristic of **activated protein C**, not LMWH. *Factor XIIa* - **Factor XIIa** is involved in the initiation of the intrinsic coagulation pathway and the kallikrein-kinin system. - LMWH has no significant inhibitory effect on Factor XIIa. *Factor IIa* - While unfractionated heparin inhibits **Factor IIa (thrombin)** relatively equally to Factor Xa, LMWH has a much weaker inhibitory effect on Factor IIa due to its shorter chain length. - The anti-Factor IIa activity of LMWH is generally considered to be negligible compared to its **anti-Factor Xa activity**.
Question 744: What is the recommended dose of oseltamivir for a child aged 9 months?
- A. 2 mg/kg twice daily for 5 days
- B. 2.5 mg/kg twice daily for 5 days
- C. 3 mg/kg twice daily for 5 days (Correct Answer)
- D. 3.5 mg/kg twice daily for 5 days
Explanation: ***3 mg/kg twice daily for 5 days*** - For children aged **less than 1 year**, and weighing less than 15 kg, the recommended oseltamivir dose is **3 mg/kg** administered **twice daily** for 5 days. - This dosage regimen is effective in treating influenza and is based on studies of its **pharmacokinetics** and **efficacy** in this age group. *2 mg/kg twice daily for 5 days* - This dosage is **lower than recommended** for children under 1 year of age and may not achieve adequate therapeutic drug levels. - Subtherapeutic dosing could lead to **reduced antiviral efficacy** and potentially poorer clinical outcomes. *2.5 mg/kg twice daily for 5 days* - Similar to the 2 mg/kg dose, this is **below the standard recommendation** for infants and young children in this age bracket. - Inadequate dosing increases the risk of **treatment failure** and the development of **antiviral resistance**. *3.5 mg/kg twice daily for 5 days* - This dosage might be considered **higher than necessary** for a 9-month-old child and could potentially increase the risk of **adverse effects**. - While exact toxicities are rare within a reasonable range, adherence to recommended guidelines optimizes the **benefit-risk profile**.
Question 745: Which of the following statements about vinca alkaloids is true?
- A. Inhibits mitotic spindle (Correct Answer)
- B. Enhances polymerization of tubulin
- C. Inhibits topoisomerase I
- D. Inhibits topoisomerase II
Explanation: ***Inhibits mitotic spindle*** - **Vinca alkaloids** (e.g., vincristine, vinblastine) exert their cytotoxic effects by binding to **tubulin**, thereby inhibiting its polymerization into microtubules. - This disruption prevents the formation of the **mitotic spindle**, arresting cells in metaphase and leading to apoptosis. *Enhances polymerization of tubulin* - This statement describes the mechanism of action of **taxanes** (e.g., paclitaxel), which stabilize microtubules and prevent their depolymerization. - Vinca alkaloids, in contrast, **inhibit** tubulin polymerization, preventing microtubule assembly. *Inhibits topoisomerase I* - Inhibition of **topoisomerase I** is the mechanism of action for drugs like **irinotecan** and **topotecan**. - These agents cause single-strand breaks in DNA, which is distinct from the microtubule disruption caused by vinca alkaloids. *Inhibits topoisomerase II* - Drugs like **etoposide** and **teniposide** work by inhibiting **topoisomerase II**, leading to double-strand DNA breaks. - This mechanism is different from the disruption of microtubule dynamics seen with vinca alkaloids.
Question 746: Which of the following antineoplastic drugs SHOULD NOT be given by rapid IV infusion?
- A. Cyclophosphamide
- B. Cytosine arabinoside
- C. Cisplatin (Correct Answer)
- D. Bleomycin
Explanation: ***Cisplatin*** - **Cisplatin** is highly nephrotoxic and emetogenic; rapid IV infusion can exacerbate these adverse effects, leading to severe renal damage and intractable nausea/vomiting. - It typically requires **prolonged infusion times** (e.g., 6-8 hours) with extensive pre- and post-hydration to reduce kidney toxicity and ensure patient tolerance. *Cyclophosphamide* - While cyclophosphamide can cause **hemorrhagic cystitis**, this is managed by adequate hydration and mesna, and its infusion rate is generally not as critically prolonged as cisplatin's. - It is often administered as a **relatively quick IV infusion** over 30-60 minutes, emphasizing hydration. *Bleomycin* - **Bleomycin** is known for pulmonary toxicity and hypersensitivity reactions, but these are not primarily linked to its infusion rate. - It is commonly given via **slow IV push or short infusion**, sometimes with a test dose to assess for hypersensitivity. *Cytosine arabinoside* - **Cytosine arabinoside** can cause myelosuppression and cerebellar toxicity, but these toxicities are not typically exacerbated by a rapid infusion rate. - It is often administered via a **continuous infusion** over several days or as a rapid IV bolus.