NEET-PG 2012 Practice Questions

Q: What is the most common method of family planning sterilization practiced in India?

Female sterilization. ***Female sterilization*** - **Female sterilization** (tubal ligation) is the most prevalent method of permanent contraception in India, accounting for over **95% of all sterilization procedures**. - This is primarily due to historical policies focusing on female methods and various **socio-cultural factors** including gender norms and male reluctance. - According to **NFHS data**, female sterilization is the single most common contraceptive method overall in India. *Male sterilization* - **Male sterilization** (vasectomy) is significantly less common compared to female sterilization in India, accounting for less than 5% of sterilization procedures. - This disparity is attributed to **gender norms**, misconceptions about masculinity, and limited promotion of vasectomy services. *Condom use* - While condoms are a common **temporary contraceptive method**, the question specifically asks about **sterilization methods**, which are permanent. - Condoms are barrier methods, not sterilization procedures. *Intrauterine device (IUD)* - IUDs are **reversible long-acting contraceptive methods**, not sterilization procedures. - Though IUDs are increasingly popular in India, they do not constitute a sterilization method as they can be removed.

Q: What does a highly sensitive test imply about its false negative rate?

Low false negative rate. ***Low false negative rate*** - A highly **sensitive test** is good at identifying true positives, meaning it correctly identifies most people who have the disease. - Sensitivity = TP/(TP+FN), so high sensitivity mathematically means few false negatives. - This characteristic directly translates to a **low false negative rate**, as few people with the disease will be missed. *High false positive rate* - A high **false positive rate** relates to **specificity**, not sensitivity. - False positive rate = FP/(FP+TN), which measures how many healthy people are incorrectly identified as diseased. - While some sensitive tests may have lower specificity (higher FP rate), this is not a direct implication of high sensitivity. *High true negative rate* - A high **true negative rate** is a characteristic of a highly **specific** test, which correctly identifies people who do **not** have the disease. - True negative rate = TN/(TN+FP) = Specificity. - **Sensitivity** and **specificity** are independent measures, so high sensitivity does not imply a high true negative rate. *High true positive rate* - High **true positive rate** is actually another term for high sensitivity (Sensitivity = TPR = TP/(TP+FN)). - While this is true of a sensitive test, the question specifically asks about the implication for the **false negative rate**. - The **most direct answer** regarding false negatives is "low false negative rate" rather than describing the true positive rate.

Q: Which of the following is not a source of environmental radiation?

CO. ***CO*** - **Carbon monoxide (CO)** is a toxic gas produced by incomplete combustion, but it is **not radioactive** and thus not a source of environmental radiation. - Its danger comes from its ability to bind to **hemoglobin**, preventing oxygen transport, not from emitting radiation. *Radium* - **Radium** is a highly **radioactive element** found naturally in the environment as a decay product of uranium and thorium. - It emits **alpha and gamma radiation**, contributing significantly to natural background radiation. *Uranium* - **Uranium** is a naturally occurring **radioactive element** found in rocks, soil, and water. - It decays through a series of steps, emitting **alpha, beta, and gamma radiation**, and is a primary source of environmental background radiation. *Radon* - **Radon** is a **radioactive gas** that is formed from the decay of uranium in soil and rocks. - It is a significant source of **indoor environmental radiation exposure** and a known cause of lung cancer.

Q: Which disease is classified as 'multibacillary'?

Leprosy. **Leprosy** - Leprosy, caused by *Mycobacterium leprae*, is classified by the **WHO** into **paucibacillary (PB)** and **multibacillary (MB)** forms based on bacterial load and number of skin lesions. - **Multibacillary leprosy** is defined as having more than 5 skin lesions with positive skin smears, requiring a longer treatment regimen (12 months of multidrug therapy with rifampicin, dapsone, and clofazimine). - This classification is specific to **leprosy** and is crucial for determining appropriate treatment duration and drug combinations. *Tuberculosis* - Tuberculosis is classified by **anatomical location** (pulmonary vs. extrapulmonary), **drug susceptibility** (drug-sensitive vs. drug-resistant), or **smear status** (smear-positive vs. smear-negative). - The term **'multibacillary'** is not used in TB classification, making this an incorrect option. *Trachoma* - Trachoma is a chronic **keratoconjunctivitis** caused by *Chlamydia trachomatis*, classified by **clinical stages** (TF, TI, TS, TT, CO) according to the WHO simplified grading system. - The paucibacillary/multibacillary classification does **not apply** to trachoma. *Tetanus* - Tetanus is a **toxin-mediated disease** caused by *Clostridium tetani*, manifesting as muscle spasms and lockjaw. - Classification is based on **clinical severity** (localized, generalized, cephalic, neonatal), not bacterial load, making the term 'multibacillary' inapplicable.

Q: Raindrop pigmentation is caused by?

Arsenic. ***Arsenic*** - Chronic **arsenic** exposure can lead to characteristic skin manifestations, including **raindrop pigmentation**, which appears as small, scattered hypopigmented macules surrounded by hyperpigmented skin, particularly on the trunk and extremities. - This pigmentation is a result of altered **melanin distribution** and **keratinocyte damage** due to arsenic toxicity. *Clofazimine* - **Clofazimine** is an anti-leprosy drug that can cause **reddish-brown to bluish-black skin discoloration**, which is a diffuse pigmentation, not "raindrop" in nature. - The pigmentation associated with clofazimine is due to drug deposition in tissues and is usually reversible. *Dapsone* - **Dapsone** is primarily known for causing **methemoglobinemia** and **hemolytic anemia**, especially in patients with G6PD deficiency. - While it can cause some dermatological side effects, **pigmentation** is not a characteristic feature, and it does not produce a "raindrop" pattern. *Minocycline* - **Minocycline** can cause various types of pigmentation, including **blue-gray discoloration** in scars, shins, and mucous membranes, as well as diffuse brown pigmentation. - However, the pigmentation caused by minocycline is typically diffuse or localized to specific areas, and it does not present as "raindrop pigmentation."

Q: What is the first external sign of decomposition of a dead body?

Greenish discolouration over right iliac fossa. ***Greenish discolouration over right iliac fossa*** - The **first external sign of decomposition** is typically a **greenish discoloration** that appears over the **right iliac fossa**. - This occurs due to the breakdown of **hemoglobin** by bacteria, particularly *Clostridium perfringens*, in the **cecum**, which is located in this region. - It typically appears **12-24 hours after death** under normal environmental conditions. *Decomposition of liver and intestine* - While internal organs like the liver and intestine do decompose, their decomposition is an **internal process** and not the **first external sign**. - Internal putrefaction precedes external signs but is not visually observable from the exterior initially. *Greenish discolouration over dependent parts* - Greenish discolouration over dependent parts represents a **later stage of decomposition** when putrefactive changes spread throughout the body. - This occurs after the initial greenish discoloration in the right iliac fossa as bacterial action and gases spread from the intestines to other body regions. - This is NOT the first external sign but rather a progression of decomposition. *Blood stained froth from mouth* - **Blood-stained froth from the mouth** can be seen in various conditions, such as **drowning**, **pulmonary edema**, or certain types of poisoning, but it is not related to decomposition. - This finding is more indicative of the cause of death or agonal/perimortem changes rather than postmortem decomposition.

Q: Shaffer's sign is seen in ?

Retinal detachment. ***Retinal detachment*** - **Shaffer's sign** refers to the presence of **pigment cells** (tobacco dust) in the **anterior vitreous**, indicating a retinal break or detachment. - This sign is due to the release of retinal pigment epithelium cells into the vitreous following a tear in the retina. *Acute angle-closure glaucoma* - This condition is characterized by a **sudden increase in intraocular pressure** due to blocked fluid outflow, causing pain, redness, and blurred vision. - It does not involve pigment cells in the vitreous, but rather changes in the **anterior chamber angle**. *Diabetic retinopathy* - This is a microvascular complication of diabetes, leading to damage to the blood vessels in the retina, causing **hemorrhages**, **exudates**, and **neovascularization**. - It does not typically present with free pigment in the vitreous as a primary diagnostic sign. *Age-related macular degeneration* - This condition affects the **macula**, often causing distorted vision and central vision loss, and is characterized by drusen and atrophy. - While it can involve retinal changes, it does not classically present with pigment cells in the vitreous as a diagnostic indicator.

Q: Which of the following is a centrally acting antihypertensive drug?

Methyldopa. ***Methyldopa*** - **Methyldopa** is a **prodrug** that is converted to **alpha-methylnorepinephrine** in the brain, which then stimulates **alpha-2 adrenergic receptors** in the brainstem. - This stimulation reduces **sympathetic outflow** from the central nervous system, leading to decreased heart rate, stroke volume, and peripheral vascular resistance, thus lowering blood pressure. *Phenoxybenzamine* - **Phenoxybenzamine** is an **alpha-1 and alpha-2 adrenergic receptor antagonist** (non-selective alpha blocker) that primarily acts peripherally. - It causes **vasodilation** by blocking alpha-1 receptors on smooth muscle, which reduces peripheral vascular resistance. *Propranolol* - **Propranolol** is a **non-selective beta-blocker** that primarily acts on peripheral beta-adrenergic receptors. - It reduces heart rate and cardiac output by blocking **beta-1 receptors** in the heart and can also affect beta-2 receptors in the lungs and vasculature. *Prazosin* - **Prazosin** is a **selective alpha-1 adrenergic receptor antagonist** that acts primarily on peripheral blood vessels. - It causes **vasodilation** in both arteries and veins by blocking alpha-1 receptors, which reduces both preload and afterload, lowering blood pressure.

Q: What is the best drug for open-angle glaucoma?

Latanoprost. Latanoprost - Latanoprost is a prostaglandin analog and is often considered a first-line treatment for open-angle glaucoma due to its efficacy in reducing intraocular pressure (IOP) and its once-daily dosing. - It works by increasing the outflow of aqueous humor through the uveoscleral pathway, thereby lowering IOP. Pilocarpine - Pilocarpine is a cholinergic agonist that causes miosis and ciliary muscle contraction [3], increasing the outflow of aqueous humor through the trabecular meshwork [4]. - While effective, its side effects (e.g., accommodative spasm, miosis) [1] and more frequent dosing make it generally a second-line or third-line agent for long-term management compared to prostaglandins. Physostigmine - Physostigmine is an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor that indirectly increases acetylcholine, mimicking cholinergic stimulation. - Although it can lower IOP, it is generally not used for open-angle glaucoma due to significant side effects and the availability of safer, more effective alternatives [1]. Apraclonidine - Apraclonidine is an alpha-2 adrenergic agonist [2] used primarily for short-term control of IOP, especially before or after ocular surgery, or as an adjunct therapy. - Its efficacy as a long-term monotherapy for open-angle glaucoma is limited by tachyphylaxis and potential for significant systemic side effects with chronic use.

Question 1

What is the most common method of family planning sterilization practiced in India?

Accepted Answer

Female sterilization

Answer

Male sterilization

Answer

Intrauterine device (IUD)

Answer

Condom use

Question 2

What does a highly sensitive test imply about its false negative rate?

Accepted Answer

Low false negative rate

Answer

High false positive rate

Answer

High true negative rate

Answer

High true positive rate

Question 3

Which of the following is not a source of environmental radiation?

Accepted Answer

CO

Answer

Uranium

Answer

Radon

Answer

Radium

Question 4

Which disease is classified as 'multibacillary'?

Accepted Answer

Leprosy

Answer

Tuberculosis

Answer

Trachoma

Answer

Tetanus

Question 5

Raindrop pigmentation is caused by?

Accepted Answer

Arsenic

Answer

Dapsone

Answer

Minocycline

Answer

Clofazimine

Question 6

What is the first external sign of decomposition of a dead body?

Accepted Answer

Greenish discolouration over right iliac fossa

Answer

Decomposition of liver and intestine

Answer

Greenish discolouration over dependent parts

Answer

Blood stained froth from mouth

Question 7

Shaffer's sign is seen in ?

Accepted Answer

Retinal detachment

Answer

Acute angle-closure glaucoma

Answer

Diabetic retinopathy

Answer

Age-related macular degeneration

Question 8

Which of the following is a centrally acting antihypertensive drug?

Accepted Answer

Methyldopa

Answer

Phenoxybenzamine

Answer

Propranolol

Answer

Prazosin

Question 9

What is the best drug for open-angle glaucoma?

Accepted Answer

Latanoprost

Answer

Pilocarpine

Answer

Physostigmine

Answer

Apraclonidine

Question 10

In the context of understanding patient behavior and therapeutic relationships, what is the definition of social psychology?

Accepted Answer

The study of how individuals think, feel, and behave in social situations

Answer

The study of human relationships and behavior in social contexts

Answer

The examination of cultural influences on behavior

Answer

A field that does not exist

NEET-PG 2012

Community Medicine

Dermatology

Forensic Medicine

Ophthalmology

Pharmacology

Psychiatry