Anatomy
8 questionsCricoid cartilage lies at which vertebral level?
Which is derived from Wolffian duct?
What anatomical structures are involved in the closure of the fossa ovalis?
Which structure(s) passes behind the inguinal ligament:
Azygos vein drains into:
Right ovarian artery is a branch of ?
Ovarian fossa is formed by all except?
In walking, gravity tends to tilt pelvis and trunk to the unsupported side, the major factor in preventing this unwanted movement is?
NEET-PG 2012 - Anatomy NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 51: Cricoid cartilage lies at which vertebral level?
- A. C3
- B. C6 (Correct Answer)
- C. T1
- D. T4
Explanation: **C6** - The **cricoid cartilage** is an important anatomical landmark, as it signifies the transition from the **laryngopharynx** to the **esophagus** and the start of the **trachea**. - Its location at **C6 vertebral level** is significant for procedures like tracheostomy and in identifying the narrowest part of the adult airway. *C3* - The C3 vertebral level is typically associated with the **hyoid bone**, which is superior to the cricoid cartilage. - The **epiglottis** and the superior aspect of the larynx are more commonly found at C3-C4. *T1* - The T1 vertebral level is in the **thoracic spine**, well below the neck, and is associated with the **apex of the lung** and the **first rib**. - The airway structures at this level are primarily the **trachea** as it enters the thorax. *T4* - The T4 vertebral level is significant as it marks the approximate location of the **carina**, where the trachea bifurcates into the main bronchi. - This level is much lower than the larynx and cricoid cartilage.
Question 52: Which is derived from Wolffian duct?
- A. Appendix of epididymis (Correct Answer)
- B. Appendix of the testis
- C. Uterine structure
- D. Hydatid of Morgagni
Explanation: The **appendix of the epididymis** is a vestigial structure directly derived from the mesonephric (Wolffian) duct in males. It is an embryological remnant of this duct, located at the head of the epididymis. *Appendix of the testis* - The **appendix of the testis** (hydatid of Morgagni) is a remnant of the paramesonephric (Müllerian) duct, not the Wolffian duct. - It is usually found on the upper pole of the testis, typically near the epididymis. *Uterine structure* - **Uterine structures** (uterus, fallopian tubes, and upper vagina) are derived from the paramesonephric (Müllerian) ducts in females [1]. - The Wolffian ducts largely regress in females due to the absence of testosterone. *Hydatid of Morgagni* - The term **hydatid of Morgagni** can refer to the appendix of the testis (Müllerian duct remnant) or, less commonly, to the appendix of the epididymis (Wolffian duct remnant). - However, in common clinical and anatomical usage, it almost exclusively refers to the **appendix of the testis**, which is a Müllerian duct derivative.
Question 53: What anatomical structures are involved in the closure of the fossa ovalis?
- A. Septum primum + Endocardial cushion
- B. Septum primum + Septum secundum (Correct Answer)
- C. Endocardial cushions + Septum secundum
- D. None of the options
Explanation: The septum primum acts as a valve, closing against the septum secundum postnatally due to changes in atrial pressure. This fusion effectively closes the foramen ovale, leading to the formation of the fossa ovalis. The endocardial cushions are important for the formation of the atrial and ventricular septa, as well as the AV valves, but not directly for the closure of the fossa ovalis. The septum primum is directly involved, but its apposition with the endocardial cushions doesn't close the foramen ovale. While both structures contribute to heart development, their direct interaction is not responsible for the closure of the fossa ovalis. The septum secundum forms the muscular rim of the fossa ovalis, and the endocardial cushions are critical for atrial septation, but not the final closure here. This option is incorrect because the specific combination of septum primum and septum secundum is indeed responsible for the closure of the fossa ovalis.
Question 54: Which structure(s) passes behind the inguinal ligament:
- A. Femoral branch of genitofemoral nerve
- B. Femoral vein
- C. Psoas major
- D. All of the options (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Correct: All of the options*** All three structures pass deep to (behind) the inguinal ligament as they transition from the pelvis/abdomen into the thigh [1]. The inguinal ligament forms the superior border of the femoral triangle [1]. ***Femoral branch of genitofemoral nerve (Correct)*** - Pierces the **psoas major** muscle and descends along its anterior surface - Passes through the **lacuna musculorum** (lateral compartment) deep to the inguinal ligament - Lies **lateral to the femoral artery** - Provides sensory innervation to the skin over the femoral triangle ***Femoral vein (Correct)*** - Continuation of the popliteal vein from the lower limb - Passes through the **lacuna vasorum** (medial compartment/femoral canal) within the **femoral sheath** - Located **medial to the femoral artery** behind the inguinal ligament [1] - Carries deoxygenated blood back to the heart via the external iliac vein ***Psoas major (Correct)*** - Major hip flexor muscle originating from lumbar vertebrae (T12-L5) - Passes through the **lacuna musculorum** deep to the inguinal ligament - Located **lateral to the femoral vessels** - Combines with iliacus to form iliopsoas, inserting on the lesser trochanter of femur
Question 55: Azygos vein drains into:
- A. Left brachiocephalic vein
- B. Inferior vena cava
- C. Superior vena cava (Correct Answer)
- D. Right brachiocephalic vein
Explanation: Wait, what? Azygos vein drains into: ***Superior vena cava*** - The **azygos vein** ascends along the right side of the vertebral column and typically arches over the root of the right lung before draining into the **superior vena cava (SVC)**. - This anatomical arrangement allows the azygos system to collect venous blood from the posterior thoracic and abdominal walls, as well as the bronchi and esophagus, ultimately returning it to the systemic circulation via the SVC [1]. *Left brachiocephalic vein* - The **left brachiocephalic vein** drains blood from the upper left limb and left side of the head and neck. - It merges with the right brachiocephalic vein to form the SVC; the azygos vein does not directly drain into it. *Inferior vena cava* - The **inferior vena cava (IVC)** collects deoxygenated blood from the lower body. - The azygos system primarily drains structures above the diaphragm, distinct from the IVC's drainage area. *Right brachiocephalic vein* - The **right brachiocephalic vein** drains blood from the upper right limb and right side of the head and neck. - While it contributes to the formation of the SVC, the azygos vein's direct connection is to the SVC itself, not the right brachiocephalic vein.
Question 56: Right ovarian artery is a branch of ?
- A. Abdominal aorta (Correct Answer)
- B. Right internal iliac
- C. Common iliac
- D. External iliac
Explanation: ***Abdominal aorta*** - The **right ovarian artery** typically originates directly from the **abdominal aorta**, just inferior to the renal arteries [1]. - This is a direct branch, supplying blood to the **right ovary**, **fallopian tube**, and surrounding structures [1]. *Right internal iliac* - The **internal iliac artery** primarily supplies the **pelvic organs**, gluteal region, and medial thigh [1]. - While it has branches to pelvic structures, the ovarian artery does not originate from it. *Common iliac* - The **common iliac artery** bifurcates into the **internal and external iliac arteries** at the level of the sacroiliac joint. - It does not directly give off the ovarian artery. *External iliac* - The **external iliac artery** continues as the **femoral artery** below the inguinal ligament, primarily supplying the lower limb. - It does not give off branches to the ovary.
Question 57: Ovarian fossa is formed by all except?
- A. Internal iliac artery
- B. Ureter
- C. Obliterated umbilical artery
- D. Round ligament of ovary (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Round ligament of ovary*** - The **round ligament of ovary** (ovarian ligament) connects the ovary to the lateral wall of the uterus and does NOT form any boundary of the ovarian fossa [1]. - It lies medial to the ovary and is not involved in forming the depression of the ovarian fossa [1]. - This ligament anchors the ovary but is separate from the peritoneal boundaries defining the fossa [1]. *Obliterated umbilical artery* - The **obliterated umbilical artery** (medial umbilical ligament) forms the **anterior boundary** of the ovarian fossa [2]. - This is a key anatomical landmark running along the lateral pelvic wall anterior to the ovary [2]. *Internal iliac artery* - The **internal iliac artery** forms the **posterior boundary** of the ovarian fossa [2]. - It lies on the lateral pelvic wall, deep and posterior to the ovarian fossa [2]. - This is one of the main structures defining the fossa's posterior limit [2]. *Ureter* - The **ureter** runs along the lateral pelvic wall and forms part of the **posterior/floor boundary** of the ovarian fossa [2]. - It passes posteroinferior to the ovary, contributing to the fossa's posterior limits [2].
Question 58: In walking, gravity tends to tilt pelvis and trunk to the unsupported side, the major factor in preventing this unwanted movement is?
- A. Adductor muscles
- B. Quadriceps
- C. Gluteus medius and minimus (Correct Answer)
- D. Gluteus maximus
Explanation: ***Gluteus medius and minimus*** - The **gluteus medius** and **gluteus minimus** are essential **abductors** of the hip, primarily responsible for stabilizing the pelvis during the **single-limb support phase of gait**. - When one leg is lifted during walking, these muscles on the **stance leg side** contract to prevent the pelvis from tilting downwards on the unsupported swing leg side. *Adductor muscles* - **Adductor muscles** (adductor longus, brevis, magnus, pectineus, gracilis) primarily function to bring the thigh toward the midline of the body. - While they play a role in gait stability, their main action is not to prevent the lateral pelvic tilt described. *Quadriceps* - The quadriceps femoris group (rectus femoris, vastus lateralis, medialis, intermedius) are powerful **extensors of the knee**. - They are crucial for weight acceptance and propulsion during walking but do not directly prevent lateral pelvic tilt [1]. *Gluteus maximus* - The **gluteus maximus** is the largest and most powerful muscle of the hip, primarily responsible for **hip extension** and **external rotation**. - It is crucial for activities like climbing stairs or running, but its main role in normal walking is not to prevent lateral pelvic tilt; that function is more specific to the gluteus medius and minimus.
Orthopaedics
1 questionsWhich of the following conditions can cause locking of the knee joint?
NEET-PG 2012 - Orthopaedics NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 51: Which of the following conditions can cause locking of the knee joint?
- A. Osgood Schlatter
- B. Tuberculosis of knee
- C. a and b both
- D. Loose body in knee joint (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Loose body in knee joint*** - A **loose body** (e.g., a fragment of cartilage or bone) can get trapped between the articular surfaces of the knee joint, mechanically obstructing its movement and causing sudden, painful **locking**. - This mechanical impingement prevents full extension or flexion of the knee until the loose body shifts, leading to episodic locking symptoms. *Osgood Schlatter* - This condition involves inflammation and potential avulsion of the **tibial tuberosity** where the patellar tendon inserts. - It primarily causes pain and swelling below the kneecap, especially during physical activity, but does not typically result in true mechanical locking of the joint. *Tuberculosis of knee* - **Tuberculosis of the knee joint** is an infectious arthritis that causes chronic pain, swelling, and gradual destruction of articular cartilage and bone. - While it can lead to pain and limited range of motion, it usually does not present with the sudden, intermittent mechanical locking characteristic of a loose body. *a and b both* - Neither **Osgood Schlatter** nor **Tuberculosis of the knee** typically cause the characteristic mechanical locking sensation described for a loose body in the joint. - Each of these conditions has distinct pathophysiological mechanisms and clinical presentations that do not involve a physical obstruction causing locking.
Physiology
1 questionsHaploid number of chromosomes is first seen in?
NEET-PG 2012 - Physiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 51: Haploid number of chromosomes is first seen in?
- A. Spermatogonia
- B. Primary spermatocytes
- C. Secondary spermatocyte (Correct Answer)
- D. Spermatids
Explanation: ***Secondary spermatocyte*** - A secondary spermatocyte is formed after **meiosis I**, where the homologous chromosomes are separated, resulting in a cell with a **haploid number of chromosomes (n)**, although each chromosome still consists of two sister chromatids. - This is the **first stage** where haploidy is achieved in spermatogenesis. - These cells are transient and quickly undergo meiosis II to form spermatids. *Spermatogonia* - Spermatogonia are **diploid (2n)** germline stem cells that undergo mitosis to produce more spermatogonia or differentiate into primary spermatocytes. - They contain the full complement of chromosomes found in somatic cells. *Primary spermatocytes* - Primary spermatocytes are also **diploid (2n)** cells that enter meiosis I. - Before meiosis I, DNA replication occurs, so each chromosome consists of two sister chromatids, but the cell still maintains a diploid chromosome number. *Spermatids* - Spermatids are formed after **meiosis II** from secondary spermatocytes and are also **haploid (n)**. - However, secondary spermatocytes become haploid **earlier** in the process, immediately following the reductional division of meiosis I.