NEET-PG 2012 Practice Questions

Q: What vitamin is significantly absent in breast milk?

Vitamin K. ***Vitamin K*** - Breast milk contains **critically low amounts** of **vitamin K** (approximately 2-5 μg/L), making it the **most significantly absent** vitamin in breast milk. - Newborns are at high risk for **Vitamin K deficiency bleeding (VKDB)**, which can be life-threatening. - This deficiency is so critical that **prophylactic vitamin K injection** is routinely administered to **all newborns** at birth to prevent hemorrhagic disease. - Vitamin K is essential for the synthesis of **clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X** in the liver. *Vitamin D* - While breast milk does contain **some vitamin D**, the levels are often **insufficient** to meet the infant's daily requirements (contains ~25-78 IU/L; infant needs 400 IU/day). - However, it is **present in measurable amounts**, unlike vitamin K which is nearly absent. - Infants are recommended to receive **vitamin D supplementation** starting soon after birth, especially if the mother has low vitamin D levels or limited **sun exposure**. *Vitamin C* - **Breast milk** contains adequate amounts of **vitamin C** (40-50 mg/L), which is sufficient for the infant's needs. - Maternal diet typically provides enough vitamin C to ensure its presence in breast milk. *Vitamin A* - Breast milk is a **good source** of **vitamin A**, particularly in the form of **beta-carotene** and retinol. - Vitamin A levels in breast milk are adequate for infant **vision development** and **immune function**.

Q: Which of the following diseases does not have a chronic carrier state?

Tetanus. ***Tetanus*** - Tetanus is caused by the toxin produced by *Clostridium tetani*, which is an **environmental bacterium** found in soil and does not establish a persistent infection within humans. - Humans are merely **accidental hosts** for this bacterium, meaning there is **no chronic carrier state** where an infected individual continuously harbors and transmits the pathogen. - The disease occurs through wound contamination with spores, not human-to-human transmission. *Measles* - Measles is an **acute viral infection** with no chronic carrier state in the classical sense. - After acute infection, the virus is cleared from the body in immunocompetent individuals. - While **subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE)** represents a rare persistent infection, this is **not a carrier state** as the virus is not transmissible from these individuals. - SSPE occurs years after initial infection but does not involve viral shedding or transmission. *Malaria* - Individuals infected with ***Plasmodium* parasites** can develop a **chronic carrier state**, particularly with *P. vivax* and *P. ovale*, which form hypnozoites in the liver. - These parasites can remain dormant and then reactivate, causing **relapses** and allowing for continued transmission to mosquitoes over extended periods. - Chronic asymptomatic carriers can serve as reservoirs for transmission in endemic areas. *Poliomyelitis* - Individuals infected with poliovirus can shed the virus in their stools for **several weeks to months** after infection. - In **immunodeficient individuals**, prolonged excretion can occur for years, creating chronic carriers. - This prolonged shedding allows for the **continued transmission** of the virus within a population.

Q: In medical negligence cases, what is the primary role of the plaintiff?

Files case in civil court. ***Files case in civil court*** - The **plaintiff** is the party who initiates a lawsuit, claiming to have been harmed by the actions of another party. - In medical negligence cases, this typically involves someone who alleges injury due to substandard medical care and seeks **compensation** through the legal system. - Filing the case in civil court is the **primary and defining role** of the plaintiff. *Acts as defender* - The **defender** (or defendant) is the party against whom a lawsuit is brought, and they are responsible for responding to the plaintiff's claims. - In medical negligence, the healthcare provider accused of negligence would be the defender. *Gives judgement* - Giving judgment is the function of the **court** or judge and is a neutral adjudication of the facts and application of the law. - The plaintiff's role is to present their case and evidence to persuade the court, not to issue the final decision. *Issues summons to defendant* - Issuing summons is a **court function**, not the plaintiff's role. - The court issues summons after the plaintiff files the case, directing the defendant to appear and respond to the allegations.

Q: Which of the following is a primary cell line?

Chick embryo fibroblasts. ***Chick embryo fibroblasts*** - Primary cell lines are directly derived from **tissues** and have a limited lifespan in culture before undergoing senescence. - **Chick embryo fibroblasts** are isolated directly from chick embryos and propagated for a limited number of passages, making them a true primary cell culture. *Hela cells* - HeLa cells are a well-known example of a **continuous cell line**, meaning they can be cultured indefinitely. - They were originally derived from a cervical cancer patient and are considered **immortalized**. *Vero cells* - Vero cells are an **immortalized cell line** derived from the kidney of an African green monkey. - They are used extensively in virology and vaccine production due to their ability to be propagated for many passages. *WI-38* - WI-38 is a **diploid human cell strain** derived from lung tissue. - While they have a finite lifespan similar to primary cells, they represent a **cell strain** that has been subcultured and characterized, with more homogeneous growth characteristics than fresh primary cultures.

Q: What visual disturbance is caused by an optic tract lesion?

Contralateral homonymous hemianopsia. ***Contralateral homonymous hemianopsia*** - An **optic tract lesion** interrupts the nerve fibers originating from the contralateral nasal retina and the ipsilateral temporal retina, leading to **vision loss in the contralateral visual field** of both eyes. - This results in a defect where the patient cannot see objects on the **opposite side** of the body from the lesion. *Marcus Gunn pupil* - A **Marcus Gunn pupil**, also known as an **afferent pupillary defect**, indicates asymmetric disease of the **retina** or **optic nerve**, not specifically the optic tract. - It is characterized by paradoxical dilation of the affected pupil when light is swung from the unaffected to the affected eye. *Bilateral blindness* - **Bilateral blindness** typically results from severe damage to both **optic nerves**, the **optic chiasm**, or extensive bilateral lesions in the visual cortex. - An optic tract lesion affects only one side of the visual pathway posterior to the chiasm, thus not causing complete bilateral vision loss. *Ipsilateral homonymous hemianopsia* - **Ipsilateral homonymous hemianopsia** is not a standard neurological visual field defect. Visual field defects are usually described relative to the lesion side as contralateral or ipsilateral based on the specific anatomical location. - An optic tract lesion always produces a **contralateral homonymous hemianopsia** because optic tract fibers cross at the optic chiasm.

Q: How is the angle of squint measured?

Prism. ***Prism*** - The **angle of squint**, which indicates the deviation of the eyes, is most accurately measured using **prisms** in conjunction with the **prism cover test** or **alternate prism cover test**. - Prisms quantify the degree of ocular deviation in **prism diopters** by neutralizing the misalignment so that the light falls correctly on the fovea. *Gonioscopy* - This technique is used to examine the **anterior chamber angle** of the eye, which is relevant for diagnosing conditions like **glaucoma**. - It does not involve measuring the angle of ocular deviation or misalignment of the eyes. *Retinoscopy* - Retinoscopy is an objective method to determine the **refractive error** of the eye (e.g., myopia, hyperopia, astigmatism). - While it assesses the eye's ability to focus light, it does not directly measure the angle of a squint. *Keratometry* - Keratometry measures the **curvature of the cornea**, primarily used for fitting contact lenses or calculating intraocular lens power for cataract surgery. - It does not assess the alignment of the eyes or the magnitude of a squint.

Q: Which of the following germ cell tumors is benign?

Dermoid cyst. ***Seminoma*** - Seminomas are well-known malignant **germ cell tumors**, primarily affecting young males [2]. - They are associated with elevated **human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)** and can spread to lymph nodes [3]. *Leydig cell tumor* - These tumors are usually **benign** and arise from Leydig cells in the testes. - While they can produce **testosterone**, they do not typically exhibit malignancy. *Sertoli cell tumor* - Sertoli cell tumors are also generally **benign** and arise from Sertoli cells in the testes. - They lack the malignant behavior seen in seminomas and have a low rate of metastasis [1]. *Dermoid cyst* - Dermoid cysts are **benign** mature teratomas, commonly found in the ovaries or testicles. - They can contain different tissue types (like hair, fat, and teeth) but are not malignant. **References:** [1] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Diseases Of The Urinary And Male Genital Tracts, pp. 512-513. [2] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Lower Urinary Tract and Male Genital System, pp. 979-980. [3] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Lower Urinary Tract and Male Genital System, pp. 980-982.

Q: Tadpole cells, comma-shaped cells on histopathology are seen in -

Rhabdomyosarcoma. ***Rhabdomyosarcoma*** - **Tadpole cells** and **comma-shaped cells** are characteristic histological features of **rhabdomyosarcoma**, representing primitive mesenchymal cells differentiating towards skeletal muscle. - These cells are often pleomorphic, with eccentric nuclei and fibrillar eosinophilic cytoplasm, giving them their distinctive shapes. *Trichoepithelioma* - This is a benign adnexal tumor of follicular differentiation, characterized by nests of **basaloid cells**, **horn cysts**, and rudimentary hair structures. - It does not typically feature tadpole or comma-shaped cells. *Histiocytoma* - A **benign fibrous histiocytoma** (dermatofibroma) is composed of fibroblasts and histiocytes forming storiform patterns. - **Malignant fibrous histiocytoma** (now often reclassified as undifferentiated pleomorphic sarcoma) features pleomorphic spindle cells and giant cells, but not specifically tadpole or comma-shaped cells. *Leiomyosarcoma* - This is a malignant tumor of **smooth muscle origin**, characterized by spindle cells with blunt-ended nuclei, arranged in fascicles. - It lacks the tadpole or comma-shaped cells seen in rhabdomyosarcoma.

Q: Which of the following statements about Conivaptan is correct?

It is a vasopressin antagonist.. ***It is a vasopressin antagonist.*** * **Conivaptan** is a non-peptide, dual **vasopressin V1A and V2 receptor antagonist**, meaning it blocks the action of vasopressin. * By blocking vasopressin, it promotes **aquaresis** (excretion of solute-free water), which is beneficial in conditions like **hyponatremia**. * *It selectively acts on V2 receptors.* * **Conivaptan** is a **dual antagonist**, blocking both **V1A and V2 receptors**, not just V2. * **Tolvaptan**, in contrast, is a selective **V2 receptor antagonist**. * *It is administered orally.* * **Conivaptan** is typically administered intravenously, particularly in hospital settings for acute hyponatremia. * **Tolvaptan** is the orally administered vasopressin antagonist. * *All of the options.* * Since Conivaptan is not selectively acting on V2 receptors and is not administered orally, this option is incorrect.

Q: Which of the following is not used as treatment for lymphatic filariasis -

Praziquantel. ***Praziquantel*** - **Praziquantel** is primarily an **anthelmintic drug** effective against **schistosomiasis** and **tapeworm infections**. - It does not have a significant role in the treatment of **lymphatic filariasis**. *Ivermectin* - **Ivermectin** is one of the **mainstays** of treatment for **lymphatic filariasis**, particularly in combination therapies. - It works by paralyzing and killing **microfilariae**, reducing their numbers in the bloodstream. *DEC* - **Diethylcarbamazine (DEC)** is a **highly effective antifilarial drug** used to kill both **microfilariae** and **adult worms** in lymphatic filariasis. - It is often used in mass drug administration programs and for individual treatment. *Albendazole* - **Albendazole** is an **anthelmintic drug** often used in combination with **Ivermectin** or **DEC** for the treatment of **lymphatic filariasis**. - It helps to kill **microfilariae** and has some macrofilaricidal effects, reducing the viability of adult worms.

Question 1

What vitamin is significantly absent in breast milk?

Accepted Answer

Vitamin K

Answer

Vitamin D

Answer

Vitamin C

Answer

Vitamin A

Question 2

Which of the following diseases does not have a chronic carrier state?

Accepted Answer

Tetanus

Answer

Malaria

Answer

Measles

Answer

Poliomyelitis

Question 3

In medical negligence cases, what is the primary role of the plaintiff?

Accepted Answer

Files case in civil court

Answer

Acts as defender

Answer

Gives judgement

Answer

Issues summons to defendant

Question 4

Which of the following is a primary cell line?

Accepted Answer

Chick embryo fibroblasts

Answer

Hela cells

Answer

Vero cells

Answer

WI-38

Question 5

What visual disturbance is caused by an optic tract lesion?

Accepted Answer

Contralateral homonymous hemianopsia

Answer

Marcus Gunn pupil

Answer

Bilateral blindness

Answer

Ipsilateral homonymous hemianopsia

Question 6

How is the angle of squint measured?

Accepted Answer

Prism

Answer

Gonioscopy

Answer

Retinoscopy

Answer

Keratometry

Question 7

Which of the following germ cell tumors is benign?

Accepted Answer

Dermoid cyst

Answer

Seminoma

Answer

Embryonal carcinoma

Answer

Yolk sac tumor

Question 8

Tadpole cells, comma-shaped cells on histopathology are seen in -

Accepted Answer

Rhabdomyosarcoma

Answer

Trichoepithelioma

Answer

Histiocytoma

Answer

Leiomyosarcoma

Question 9

Which of the following statements about Conivaptan is correct?

Accepted Answer

It is a vasopressin antagonist.

Answer

It selectively acts on V2 receptors.

Answer

It is administered orally.

Answer

All of the options.

Question 10

Which of the following is not used as treatment for lymphatic filariasis -

Accepted Answer

Praziquantel

Answer

DEC

Answer

Albendazole

Answer

Ivermectin

NEET-PG 2012

Biochemistry

Community Medicine

Forensic Medicine

Microbiology

Ophthalmology

Pathology

Pharmacology