Anatomy
3 questionsAll are lateral branches of the abdominal aorta, EXCEPT which of the following?
Inferior parathyroid develops from which pharyngeal pouch?
Which of the following is derived from endoderm?
NEET-PG 2012 - Anatomy NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 401: All are lateral branches of the abdominal aorta, EXCEPT which of the following?
- A. Right testicular artery
- B. Left renal artery
- C. Middle suprarenal artery
- D. Celiac trunk (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Celiac trunk*** - The **celiac trunk** is an anterior branch of the abdominal aorta, supplying the foregut derivatives. - It arises from the ventral aspect of the aorta, distinguishing it from lateral branches. *Right testicular artery* - The **testicular arteries** (gonadal arteries) are paired lateral branches of the abdominal aorta. - They arise inferior to the renal arteries and descend to supply the testes in males. *Left renal artery* - The **renal arteries** [1] [3] are large paired lateral branches of the abdominal aorta. - They supply the kidneys [2] and typically arise just inferior to the superior mesenteric artery. *Middle suprarenal artery* - The **middle suprarenal arteries** are paired lateral branches, typically arising directly from the abdominal aorta. - They supply the suprarenal (adrenal) glands [2].
Question 402: Inferior parathyroid develops from which pharyngeal pouch?
- A. 1st
- B. 2nd
- C. 3rd (Correct Answer)
- D. 4th
Explanation: The inferior parathyroid glands develop from the dorsal wing of the third pharyngeal pouch. Due to their origin, they often migrate further caudally than the superior parathyroid glands, sometimes even locating within the thymus which also develops from the third pouch. *1st* - The first pharyngeal pouch contributes to the formation of the eustachian tube, tympanic cavity, and mastoid air cells. - It has no role in the development of the parathyroid glands. *2nd* - The second pharyngeal pouch mainly gives rise to the palatine tonsils and their crypts. - It is not involved in the development of parathyroid tissue. *4th* - The fourth pharyngeal pouch gives rise to the superior parathyroid glands and the parafollicular cells (C cells) of the thyroid, which produce calcitonin. - While it forms parathyroid tissue, it is for the superior glands, not the inferior ones.
Question 403: Which of the following is derived from endoderm?
- A. Gall bladder (Correct Answer)
- B. Lens
- C. Spleen
- D. Lymph nodes
Explanation: ***Gall bladder*** - The **gallbladder**, along with other organs of the **gastrointestinal tract** such as the liver, pancreas, and epithelial lining of the digestive and respiratory systems, originates from the **endoderm** [1]. - The endoderm forms the primitive gut tube, from which these accessory digestive organs bud off. *Lens* - The **lens of the eye** is derived from the **surface ectoderm**, which invaginates to form the lens vesicle. - This contrasts with the neural ectoderm, which forms the neural tube and retina. *Spleen* - The **spleen** is derived from the **mesoderm**, specifically from mesenchymal cells in the dorsal mesentery of the stomach. - It is involved in blood filtration and immune responses, making it a lymphoid organ. *Lymph nodes* - **Lymph nodes** are primarily derived from the **mesoderm**, specifically from specialized mesenchymal cells that form their connective tissue capsule and stroma. - The immune cells within the lymph nodes, such as lymphocytes, originate from hematopoietic stem cells that migrate into these developing structures.
Physiology
7 questionsWhat is the primary physiological effect of increased 2,3-DPG on hemoglobin?
Which of the following statements about volume receptors is NOT true?
Which sensory modalities are most directly affected by lesions of the primary somatosensory cortex?
What is the normal range for the CSF/plasma glucose ratio?
Which of the following contains the PRIMARY central chemoreceptors responsible for detecting CO2 and pH changes in cerebrospinal fluid?
Wolff–Chaikoff effect is due to?
Prostaglandins (PGs) in semen are secreted by?
NEET-PG 2012 - Physiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 401: What is the primary physiological effect of increased 2,3-DPG on hemoglobin?
- A. Increased affinity of hemoglobin to oxygen
- B. Decreased affinity of hemoglobin to oxygen (Correct Answer)
- C. Left shift of oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve
- D. Right shift of oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve
Explanation: ***Decreased affinity of hemoglobin to oxygen*** - **2,3-Diphosphoglycerate (2,3-DPG)** binds to the beta subunits of deoxyhemoglobin, stabilizing the **deoxygenated state** and thus **reducing hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen**. - This is the **primary molecular mechanism** by which 2,3-DPG exerts its effect, facilitating **oxygen unloading** in peripheral tissues. - This decreased affinity manifests graphically as a **right shift** in the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve. *Increased affinity of hemoglobin to oxygen* - This is incorrect because 2,3-DPG specifically works to **decrease hemoglobin's affinity** for oxygen, promoting oxygen release. - Increased affinity would mean oxygen is held more tightly, which is counterproductive for **oxygen delivery** to tissues. *Left shift of oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve* - A **left shift** indicates **increased affinity** of hemoglobin for oxygen, meaning oxygen is held more tightly. - Since 2,3-DPG decreases affinity, it causes a **right shift**, not a left shift. *Right shift of oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve* - While this is the **graphical representation** of 2,3-DPG's effect, it is a **consequence** of the primary molecular mechanism (decreased affinity). - A right shift signifies that for any given partial pressure of oxygen, hemoglobin is **less saturated** with oxygen, reflecting the decreased affinity caused by 2,3-DPG binding.
Question 402: Which of the following statements about volume receptors is NOT true?
- A. They are located in carotid sinus (Correct Answer)
- B. They are low pressure receptors
- C. They mediate vasopressin release
- D. They provide afferents for thirst control
Explanation: ***They are located in carotid sinus*** - Volume receptors, primarily **atrial stretch receptors** and receptors in the **pulmonary vessels**, are located in the low-pressure areas of the circulation, not the carotid sinus. - The carotid sinus primarily contains **baroreceptors** which detect changes in arterial pressure, not blood volume. *They are low pressure receptors* - This statement is true; volume receptors are indeed **low-pressure receptors** found in the atria and great veins. - They primarily monitor **extracellular fluid volume** and central venous pressure. *They provide afferents for thirst control* - This statement is true; when blood volume decreases, the firing rate of these receptors decreases, signaling the **central nervous system** to stimulate thirst. - This is an important mechanism for regulating **fluid intake** and maintaining hydration. *They mediate vasopressin release* - This statement is true; a decrease in blood volume reduces the afferent signaling from volume receptors, which consequently stimulates the release of **vasopressin (ADH)**. - Vasopressin then increases **water reabsorption** in the kidneys to conserve fluid.
Question 403: Which sensory modalities are most directly affected by lesions of the primary somatosensory cortex?
- A. Pain, temperature, and touch
- B. Vibration and proprioception
- C. Localization and two-point discrimination (Correct Answer)
- D. All of the options
Explanation: ***Localization and two-point discrimination*** - Lesions in the **primary somatosensory cortex** (S1) lead to profoundly impaired **discriminative touch**, which includes the ability to precisely localize tactile stimuli and distinguish between two closely spaced points. - These are the **most characteristic deficits** of S1 lesions, representing the cortex's unique role in processing **spatial discrimination and fine sensory analysis**. - S1 is essential for the **integrative functions** that allow precise spatial mapping of sensory inputs. *Pain, temperature, and touch* - Basic touch perception is affected, but **pain and temperature** are primarily mediated by the **spinothalamic tracts** with substantial processing in the thalamus, insular cortex, and anterior cingulate cortex rather than S1. - Crude touch sensation remains relatively preserved with S1 lesions; it is the **discriminative quality** that is lost. - These modalities are NOT the most directly affected by isolated S1 lesions. *Vibration and proprioception* - **Vibration** and **proprioception** are indeed significantly impacted by S1 lesions as S1 receives thalamic projections from the **dorsal column-medial lemniscus (DCML) pathway**. - However, these modalities have substantial **subcortical representation** in the thalamus and can be partially preserved even with cortical damage. - In contrast, **localization and two-point discrimination** are purely cortical functions with no subcortical processing, making them the MOST directly and exclusively dependent on S1 integrity. *All of the options* - This is incorrect because pain and temperature perception is NOT most directly affected by S1 lesions—these are primarily processed by other pathways and cortical areas (spinothalamic system, insular cortex).
Question 404: What is the normal range for the CSF/plasma glucose ratio?
- A. 1.2 - 1.6
- B. 0.6 - 0.8 (Correct Answer)
- C. 0.2 - 0.4
- D. 1.0 - 1.2
Explanation: ***Correct: 0.6 - 0.8*** - This ratio indicates that cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) glucose concentration is typically 60-80% of plasma glucose concentration - This range is crucial for identifying metabolic or infectious pathologies affecting the central nervous system - Normal CSF glucose is approximately 50-80 mg/dL when plasma glucose is 70-120 mg/dL *Incorrect: 0.2 - 0.4* - A ratio in this range indicates significantly low CSF glucose, suggesting conditions like bacterial meningitis or hypoglycorrhachia - This is well below the normal physiological proportion of glucose in the CSF relative to plasma - Seen in bacterial/tuberculous meningitis, fungal infections, or malignancy *Incorrect: 1.0 - 1.2* - A CSF/plasma glucose ratio close to or above 1.0 would imply that CSF glucose levels are equal to or higher than plasma levels, which is physiologically impossible under normal conditions - Glucose transport into the CSF is regulated by GLUT-1 transporters and typically results in lower concentrations than in plasma - The blood-brain barrier maintains this gradient *Incorrect: 1.2 - 1.6* - This range is even more exaggerated and physiologically impossible, as CSF glucose cannot exceed plasma glucose in a healthy individual - Such a high ratio would contradict the mechanisms of glucose transport across the blood-brain barrier - Would suggest laboratory error if observed
Question 405: Which of the following contains the PRIMARY central chemoreceptors responsible for detecting CO2 and pH changes in cerebrospinal fluid?
- A. Medulla (Correct Answer)
- B. Baroreceptors in carotid sinus
- C. Peripheral chemoreceptors in carotid bodies
- D. All of the above
Explanation: ***Medulla*** - The **medulla oblongata** in the brainstem houses the primary central chemoreceptors. - These chemoreceptors are located on the **ventral surface of the medulla** and are highly sensitive to changes in the **pH of the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)**, which is indirectly affected by the partial pressure of carbon dioxide (PCO2) in arterial blood. - CO2 diffuses across the blood-brain barrier, combines with water to form H+ ions, which directly stimulate these central chemoreceptors. *Baroreceptors in carotid sinus* - **Baroreceptors** primarily detect changes in **arterial blood pressure**, not CO2 or pH levels. - They are located in the carotid sinus and aortic arch and are involved in cardiovascular reflexes, not direct chemoreception for respiratory drive. *Peripheral chemoreceptors in carotid bodies* - **Peripheral chemoreceptors** in the carotid bodies (and aortic bodies) detect changes in **arterial blood O2, CO2, and pH**. - However, they are **peripheral**, not central chemoreceptors, and are the primary detectors of **hypoxemia**. - They contribute to respiratory drive but are secondary to central chemoreceptors for CO2 detection. *All of the above* - This option is incorrect because only the **medulla** contains the primary central chemoreceptors for CO2 and pH detection in CSF. - Baroreceptors detect blood pressure, and peripheral chemoreceptors are not central chemoreceptors.
Question 406: Wolff–Chaikoff effect is due to?
- A. Decreased iodination of MIT
- B. Excess iodine intake (Correct Answer)
- C. Suppression of TSH secretion
- D. Decreased conversion of T4 to T3
Explanation: ***Excess iodine intake*** - The **Wolff-Chaikoff effect** is a phenomenon where a high intake of iodine acutely **inhibits thyroid hormone synthesis** and release. - This effect protects the body from excessive thyroid hormone production during periods of very high iodine availability. *Decreased iodination of MIT* - While the Wolff-Chaikoff effect does inhibit **iodination**, the direct cause is the excessive iodine itself, which triggers an autoregulatory shutdown. - Decreased iodination is a *consequence* of the high iodine leading to inhibition of thyroid peroxidase activity, but not the primary cause of the effect. *Suppression of TSH secretion* - **TSH (Thyroid Stimulating Hormone)** secretion is primarily regulated by negative feedback from thyroid hormones (T3 and T4) and TRH from the hypothalamus. - The Wolff-Chaikoff effect directly involves the thyroid gland's response to iodine and is not primarily mediated by TSH suppression. *Decreased conversion of T4 to T3* - The **conversion of T4 to T3** primarily occurs in peripheral tissues, mediated by deiodinase enzymes. - The Wolff-Chaikoff effect focuses on the inhibition of **iodine organification** and hormone release within the thyroid gland itself, not peripheral conversion.
Question 407: Prostaglandins (PGs) in semen are secreted by?
- A. Prostate
- B. Seminal vesicle (Correct Answer)
- C. Sperms
- D. Testes
Explanation: ***Seminal vesicle*** - The **seminal vesicles** are the primary source of **prostaglandins (PGs)** in semen, contributing significantly to the seminal fluid volume. - These PGs play a crucial role in promoting **sperm motility** and facilitating fertilization. *Prostate* - The **prostate gland** primarily secretes **citrate**, **acid phosphatase**, and **prostate-specific antigen (PSA)**, which contribute to sperm activation and semen liquefaction. - It does not significantly contribute to the prostaglandin content of semen. *Sperms* - **Spermatozoa** themselves primarily contribute genetic material and are not a significant source of prostaglandin synthesis in semen. - Their main function is fertilization, not the production of accessory gland secretions. *Testes* - The **testes** are responsible for **spermatogenesis** (sperm production) and the synthesis of **androgens** like testosterone. - They do not secrete prostaglandins into the seminal fluid.