Anatomy
8 questionsInferior parathyroid develops from which pharyngeal pouch?
Corpora arenacea is seen in?
What is the outer layer of the blastocyst called?
Which of the following is not a boundary of Koch's triangle?
Which of the following is a tributary of the coronary sinus?
Waldeyer's fascia lies?
Which is the primary segment of the liver drained by the right hepatic vein?
All are lateral branches of the abdominal aorta, EXCEPT which of the following?
NEET-PG 2012 - Anatomy NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 351: Inferior parathyroid develops from which pharyngeal pouch?
- A. 1st
- B. 2nd
- C. 3rd (Correct Answer)
- D. 4th
Explanation: The inferior parathyroid glands develop from the dorsal wing of the third pharyngeal pouch. Due to their origin, they often migrate further caudally than the superior parathyroid glands, sometimes even locating within the thymus which also develops from the third pouch. *1st* - The first pharyngeal pouch contributes to the formation of the eustachian tube, tympanic cavity, and mastoid air cells. - It has no role in the development of the parathyroid glands. *2nd* - The second pharyngeal pouch mainly gives rise to the palatine tonsils and their crypts. - It is not involved in the development of parathyroid tissue. *4th* - The fourth pharyngeal pouch gives rise to the superior parathyroid glands and the parafollicular cells (C cells) of the thyroid, which produce calcitonin. - While it forms parathyroid tissue, it is for the superior glands, not the inferior ones.
Question 352: Corpora arenacea is seen in?
- A. Pineal (Correct Answer)
- B. Seminal vesicle
- C. Breast
- D. Prostate
Explanation: ***Pineal*** - **Corpora arenacea**, also known as **brain sand**, are calcium deposits found in the pineal gland. - Their presence is a normal, age-related finding and increases with age, though their exact physiological role is not fully understood. *Prostate* - The prostate gland contains **corpora amylacea**, which are concentric calcifications found within the glandular acini. - While similar in appearance to corpora arenacea, they are distinct structures specific to the prostate. *Seminal vesicle* - The seminal vesicles produce a fluid component of semen, and while they may occasionally show calcifications, these are typically due to stones or chronic inflammation, not the characteristic "brain sand" seen in the pineal gland. - They do not contain corpora arenacea as a normal physiological feature. *Breast* - Calcifications in the breast are common and can be either benign (e.g., **fibrocystic changes**, vascular calcifications) or malignant (e.g., **ductal carcinoma in situ**). - These calcifications are generally not referred to as corpora arenacea and have different clinical implications and microscopic appearances.
Question 353: What is the outer layer of the blastocyst called?
- A. Embryo proper
- B. Trophoblast (Correct Answer)
- C. Primitive streak
- D. Yolk sac
Explanation: ***Trophoblast*** - The **trophoblast** is the outer layer of cells of the blastocyst, which goes on to form the **placenta** and other extraembryonic tissues [1]. - It plays a crucial role in the **implantation** of the blastocyst into the uterine wall and in producing hormones [1]. *Primitive streak* - The **primitive streak** is a structure that forms during **gastrulation**, much later than the initial blastocyst stage. - It establishes the **anterior-posterior axis** and initiates the formation of the three germ layers. *Yolk sac* - The **yolk sac** is an extraembryonic membrane that forms within the blastocyst cavity, but it is not the outermost layer of the entire structure. - It is involved in early **nutrient transfer** and **blood cell formation** before the placenta is fully functional. *Embryo proper* - The **embryo proper**, derived from the **inner cell mass (ICM)**, is the part of the blastocyst that will develop into the actual embryo [2]. - It is located *inside* the trophoblast layer, not forming the outer boundary of the blastocyst [2].
Question 354: Which of the following is not a boundary of Koch's triangle?
- A. Limbus fossa ovalis (Correct Answer)
- B. Tricuspid valve ring
- C. Coronary sinus
- D. Tendon of Todaro
Explanation: ***Limbus fossa ovalis*** - The **limbus fossa ovalis** is a prominent oval ridge on the **interatrial septum** that surrounds the fossa ovalis. - It is **not involved** in forming the boundaries of Koch's triangle, which is located in the **right atrium** near the AV node [1]. *Tricuspid valve ring* - The **tricuspid valve ring** (or annulus) forms one of the key anatomical boundaries of **Koch's triangle**, specifically its base [1]. - This **fibrous ring** anchors the tricuspid valve leaflets and marks the inferior aspect of the triangle [1]. *Coronary sinus* - The **coronary sinus ostium** (opening) forms another crucial boundary of **Koch's triangle** [1]. - It is located at the **inferior-posterior aspect** of the interatrial septum, opening into the right atrium [1]. *Tendon of todaro* - The **Tendon of Todaro** is a fibrous structure that forms the superior boundary of **Koch's triangle** [1]. - It extends from the **Eustachian valve** (of the inferior vena cava) towards the central fibrous body, playing a role in **AV nodal localization** [1].
Question 355: Which of the following is a tributary of the coronary sinus?
- A. Anterior cardiac vein
- B. Smallest cardiac vein
- C. Thebesian vein
- D. Great cardiac vein (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Great cardiac vein*** - The **great cardiac vein** is a major tributary that drains into the **coronary sinus**, carrying deoxygenated blood from the anterior and left ventricular walls [1]. - It travels alongside the **anterior interventricular artery** (LAD) and then wraps around the left side of the heart to join the coronary sinus [1]. *Anterior cardiac vein* - The **anterior cardiac veins** typically collect blood directly into the **right atrium**, bypassing the coronary sinus [1]. - They primarily drain the anterior wall of the right ventricle. *Thebesian vein* - **Thebesian veins** (or venae cordis minimae) are small veins that drain blood from the **myocardium directly into the heart chambers**, predominantly the atria [1]. - They represent a direct communication between the myocardial capillaries and the heart chambers, not tributaries of the coronary sinus. *Smallest cardiac vein* - The term "smallest cardiac vein" is often used synonymously with **Thebesian veins** [1]. - These veins empty directly into the **heart chambers**, serving as an ancillary drainage system, rather than converging into the coronary sinus.
Question 356: Waldeyer's fascia lies?
- A. In front of the bladder.
- B. Behind the rectum. (Correct Answer)
- C. Between the bladder and uterus.
- D. Between the uterus and rectum.
Explanation: ***Behind the rectum*** - **Waldeyer’s fascia**, also known as the **sacrorectal fascia**, is a retrorectal connective tissue sheet located between the **rectum** and the **sacrum**. - It plays a crucial role in supporting the rectum and forms part of the posterior rectosacral space, separating the rectum from the sacral bone and nerves. *In front of the bladder* - The space in front of the bladder is typically referred to as the **retropubic space of Retzius**, containing loose connective tissue and fat. - No specific fascial layer named Waldeyer's fascia is located in this anterior position relative to the bladder. *Between the bladder and uterus* - This space, known as the **vesicouterine pouch** or **anterior cul-de-sac**, is a peritoneal reflection between the bladder and the uterus [1]. - It does not contain a structure known as Waldeyer's fascia. *Between the uterus and rectum* - This space is the **rectouterine pouch** or **Pouch of Douglas**, which is the deepest part of the peritoneal cavity in females [2]. - While important surgically, it does not correspond to the location of Waldeyer's fascia.
Question 357: Which is the primary segment of the liver drained by the right hepatic vein?
- A. I
- B. II
- C. IV
- D. VII (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***VII*** - The **right hepatic vein** drains the **posterior segment** of the right lobe, which includes segments **VI and VII**. Segment VII is particularly well-drained by this vein. [3] - Understanding hepatic venous drainage is crucial for **surgical planning** and interpreting imaging studies of the liver. [4] *I* - Segment I, the **caudate lobe**, is unique in its venous drainage, often by small veins directly into the **inferior vena cava (IVC)** or occasionally into the left and middle hepatic veins. [1] - It has a separate blood supply and drainage which differentiates it from other segments. [4] *II* - Segment II is part of the **left lateral segment** and is primarily drained by the **left hepatic vein**. - The left hepatic vein typically drains segments II and III. [2] *IV* - Segment IV, or the **quadrate lobe**, is primarily drained by the **middle hepatic vein**. - The middle hepatic vein also drains segment VIII and the anterior aspect of segment V.
Question 358: All are lateral branches of the abdominal aorta, EXCEPT which of the following?
- A. Right testicular artery
- B. Left renal artery
- C. Middle suprarenal artery
- D. Celiac trunk (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Celiac trunk*** - The **celiac trunk** is an anterior branch of the abdominal aorta, supplying the foregut derivatives. - It arises from the ventral aspect of the aorta, distinguishing it from lateral branches. *Right testicular artery* - The **testicular arteries** (gonadal arteries) are paired lateral branches of the abdominal aorta. - They arise inferior to the renal arteries and descend to supply the testes in males. *Left renal artery* - The **renal arteries** [1] [3] are large paired lateral branches of the abdominal aorta. - They supply the kidneys [2] and typically arise just inferior to the superior mesenteric artery. *Middle suprarenal artery* - The **middle suprarenal arteries** are paired lateral branches, typically arising directly from the abdominal aorta. - They supply the suprarenal (adrenal) glands [2].
Internal Medicine
1 questionsWhich of the following complications is commonly associated with mitral valve prolapse?
NEET-PG 2012 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 351: Which of the following complications is commonly associated with mitral valve prolapse?
- A. Ventricular arrhythmia
- B. Stroke
- C. Infective endocarditis (Correct Answer)
- D. Mitral stenosis
Explanation: Mitral valve prolapse (MVP) involves myxomatous degeneration of the mitral valve leaflets, which can create a rough surface predisposing to bacterial adhesion and subsequent infective endocarditis [1]. While the overall risk is low, patients with MVP and accompanying mitral regurgitation or thickened leaflets are at higher risk [1]. Patients with valvular heart disease are generally susceptible to bacterial endocarditis, often associated with procedures or dental hygiene [2]. Stroke - Although MVP can sometimes be associated with embolic events (e.g., from thrombi forming on the prolapsing valve), stroke is not considered a commonly associated complication. - The risk of stroke is generally higher in MVP patients with concomitant atrial fibrillation or other cardiovascular risk factors. Mitral stenosis - Mitral valve prolapse is characterized by the displacement of mitral valve leaflets into the left atrium during systole, which can lead to mitral regurgitation [3], not stenosis. - Mitral stenosis involves narrowing of the mitral valve orifice, usually due to rheumatic fever, which is a different pathophysiology [4]. Ventricular arrhythmia - While palpitations (often benign supraventricular ectopy) are common in MVP, clinically significant ventricular arrhythmias are less common. - Severe ventricular arrhythmias are more typically seen with significant underlying myocardial disease or severe mitral regurgitation causing left ventricular dysfunction.
Physiology
1 questionsWhat is the primary physiological effect of increased 2,3-DPG on hemoglobin?
NEET-PG 2012 - Physiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 351: What is the primary physiological effect of increased 2,3-DPG on hemoglobin?
- A. Increased affinity of hemoglobin to oxygen
- B. Decreased affinity of hemoglobin to oxygen (Correct Answer)
- C. Left shift of oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve
- D. Right shift of oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve
Explanation: ***Decreased affinity of hemoglobin to oxygen*** - **2,3-Diphosphoglycerate (2,3-DPG)** binds to the beta subunits of deoxyhemoglobin, stabilizing the **deoxygenated state** and thus **reducing hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen**. - This is the **primary molecular mechanism** by which 2,3-DPG exerts its effect, facilitating **oxygen unloading** in peripheral tissues. - This decreased affinity manifests graphically as a **right shift** in the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve. *Increased affinity of hemoglobin to oxygen* - This is incorrect because 2,3-DPG specifically works to **decrease hemoglobin's affinity** for oxygen, promoting oxygen release. - Increased affinity would mean oxygen is held more tightly, which is counterproductive for **oxygen delivery** to tissues. *Left shift of oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve* - A **left shift** indicates **increased affinity** of hemoglobin for oxygen, meaning oxygen is held more tightly. - Since 2,3-DPG decreases affinity, it causes a **right shift**, not a left shift. *Right shift of oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve* - While this is the **graphical representation** of 2,3-DPG's effect, it is a **consequence** of the primary molecular mechanism (decreased affinity). - A right shift signifies that for any given partial pressure of oxygen, hemoglobin is **less saturated** with oxygen, reflecting the decreased affinity caused by 2,3-DPG binding.