Anatomy
2 questionsWhich of these best describes the renal angle?
All of the following arteries are branches of the coeliac trunk, EXCEPT which one?
NEET-PG 2012 - Anatomy NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 261: Which of these best describes the renal angle?
- A. The angle between the latissimus dorsi and the 12th rib
- B. The angle between the erector spinae and the iliac crest
- C. The angle between the 12th rib and the erector spinae (Correct Answer)
- D. The angle between the 12th rib and the rectus abdominis
Explanation: ***The angle between the 12th rib and the erector spinae*** - The **renal angle** (also known as the costovertebral angle) is the space formed by the junction of the **12th rib** and the **erector spinae muscles** laterally. - This anatomical landmark is clinically significant for assessing **kidney pain** or inflammation (e.g., in pyelonephritis) through percussion. *The angle between the latissimus dorsi and the 12th rib* - While the **latissimus dorsi** is a significant back muscle, it is not the primary anatomical landmark that defines the renal angle. - The renal angle specifically refers to the relationship between the rib cage and the deeper spinal muscles. *The angle between the erector spinae and the iliac crest* - This description refers to a region lower down on the back, closer to the **pelvis**, and not directly related to the position of the kidneys. - The **iliac crest** defines the upper border of the pelvis, far from the kidney's typical location relative to the 12th rib. *The angle between the 12th rib and the rectus abdominis* - The **rectus abdominis** muscle is located on the anterior (front) aspect of the abdomen, involved in trunk flexion. - This muscle is anatomically distinct and separate from the posterior flank region where the kidneys are located and where the renal angle is assessed.
Question 262: All of the following arteries are branches of the coeliac trunk, EXCEPT which one?
- A. Splenic artery
- B. Left gastric artery
- C. Common hepatic artery
- D. Right gastric artery (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Right gastric artery*** - The **right gastric artery** typically originates from the **proper hepatic artery**, which is a branch of the common hepatic artery. - Therefore, it is not a direct branch of the coeliac trunk itself. *Left gastric artery* - The **left gastric artery** is one of the three main direct branches of the **coeliac trunk**. - It supplies the lesser curvature of the stomach and the abdominal esophagus. *Splenic artery* - The **splenic artery** is another major direct branch of the **coeliac trunk**. - It supplies the spleen, pancreas, and parts of the stomach via various branches. *Common hepatic artery* - The **common hepatic artery** is the third main direct branch of the **coeliac trunk**. - It gives rise to the proper hepatic artery and the gastroduodenal artery, supplying the liver, gallbladder, pylorus, and duodenum.
Biochemistry
1 questionsWhat cofactor is required for the proper functioning of glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase?
NEET-PG 2012 - Biochemistry NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 261: What cofactor is required for the proper functioning of glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase?
- A. NAD
- B. NADP (Correct Answer)
- C. FAD
- D. FMN
Explanation: ***NADP*** - **NADP+** (nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate) acts as the **electron acceptor** in the **glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD)** reaction, becoming **NADPH**. - **NADPH** is crucial for maintaining the **redox balance** in cells, particularly in red blood cells, by reducing **oxidative stress**. *NAD* - **NAD+** (nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide) is a primary cofactor for many **dehydrogenase reactions** in catabolic pathways like **glycolysis** and the **Krebs cycle**. - It primarily functions as an electron acceptor in pathways that generate **ATP**, distinct from the role of **NADPH** in reductive biosynthesis and antioxidant defense. *FAD* - **FAD** (flavin adenine dinucleotide) is a coenzyme derived from **riboflavin (vitamin B2)** that is involved in various redox reactions, often in the form of **flavoproteins**. - Enzymes like **succinate dehydrogenase** in the electron transport chain utilize **FAD** as an electron acceptor, which is not the case for G6PD. *FMN* - **FMN** (flavin mononucleotide) is another coenzyme derived from **riboflavin**, structurally similar to FAD but lacking the additional adenosine monophosphate. - It participates in electron transfer reactions, particularly within **complex I** of the **electron transport chain**, but is not a cofactor for G6PD.
Internal Medicine
1 questionsProgressive distal-to-proximal motor recovery following nerve regeneration is most characteristic of which type of nerve injury?
NEET-PG 2012 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 261: Progressive distal-to-proximal motor recovery following nerve regeneration is most characteristic of which type of nerve injury?
- A. Axonotmesis (Correct Answer)
- B. Neurotmesis
- C. Neuropraxia
- D. Nerve injury
Explanation: ***Axonotmesis*** - Involves damage to the **axon** and myelin sheath, while the surrounding **epineurium** remains intact. - This preservation of the connective tissue allows for guided **regeneration** of axons from distal to proximal, leading to a good prognosis for recovery [1]. *Neurotmesis* - Refers to the **complete transection** of the nerve, including the axon, myelin, and all connective tissue sheaths. - Recovery is often **incomplete** or requires surgical repair, as significant misdirection of regenerating axons is common. *Neuropraxia* - Characterized by a **temporary block** in nerve conduction, typically due to **demyelination**, with the axon remaining intact. - Recovery is usually **rapid** and complete, occurring within days to weeks, as no axonal regeneration is needed. *Nerve injury* - This is a **general term** that encompasses all types of nerve damage, from mild to severe. - It does not specify a particular mechanism or pattern of recovery, making it less precise than the more specific classifications.
Physiology
6 questionsGastric secretions are essential for absorption of -
What is the fixed length of a myosin filament?
Which of the following statements is true regarding the function of the spinocerebellar tract?
What happens to the concentration of inulin as fluid passes through the Proximal Convoluted Tubule (PCT)?
What is the average daily volume of pancreatic secretion in humans?
Which of the following hormones does not mediate its action through cAMP?
NEET-PG 2012 - Physiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 261: Gastric secretions are essential for absorption of -
- A. Cobalamin (Correct Answer)
- B. Fat
- C. Thiamine
- D. Folic acid
Explanation: ***Cobalamin*** - **Intrinsic factor**, secreted by gastric parietal cells, is crucial for the absorption of **vitamin B12 (cobalamin)** in the terminal ileum [1]. - Without sufficient intrinsic factor, **pernicious anemia** can develop due to impaired B12 absorption [2]. *Fat* - Fat digestion primarily occurs in the **small intestine** with the help of **bile salts** and **pancreatic lipases**. - While gastric lipase begins some fat digestion, it's not essential for overall fat absorption. *Thiamine* - **Thiamine (vitamin B1)** is absorbed in the jejunum and ileum, primarily via **active transport** and passive diffusion. - Gastric secretions do not play a direct, essential role in its absorption. *Folic acid* - **Folic acid** is absorbed in the **duodenum and jejunum** as monoglutamates after being deconjugated from polyglutamate forms. - This process is not directly dependent on gastric secretions [2].
Question 262: What is the fixed length of a myosin filament?
- A. 0.16 nm
- B. 1.6 micrometers (Correct Answer)
- C. 16 nm
- D. 1.6 mm
Explanation: ***1.6 micrometers*** - Myosin filaments, also known as **thick filaments**, are integral components of muscle contraction and have a characteristic fixed length. This length is precisely **1.6 micrometers** in mammalian skeletal muscle. - This consistent length is crucial for the **sliding filament model** of muscle contraction, ensuring proper overlap with actin filaments and efficient force generation. *0.16 nm* - This value is significantly too small; **nanometers (nm)** are typically used for atomic or molecular distances, not for entire protein filaments like myosin. - A myosin filament is composed of hundreds of myosin molecules, making its overall length much larger than a fraction of a nanometer. *16 nm* - While nanometers are used for molecular structures, 16 nm is still too small for a myosin filament. The entire filament is roughly **100 times larger** than this value. - This dimension might be more appropriate for the diameter of a single myosin molecule's head region, but not the entire filament's length. *1.6 mm* - This value is significantly too large; **millimeters (mm)** are visible to the naked eye and represent macroscopic objects. - Muscle filaments are microscopic structures, and a length of 1.6 mm would imply they are many times longer than an entire muscle cell.
Question 263: Which of the following statements is true regarding the function of the spinocerebellar tract?
- A. Smoothens and coordinates movements (Correct Answer)
- B. Involved in planning and programming motor activities
- C. Involved in maintaining equilibrium
- D. Facilitates learning through vestibulo-ocular reflex changes
Explanation: ***Smoothens and coordinates movements*** - The spinocerebellar tract provides the cerebellum with **unconscious proprioceptive information** from muscle spindles and Golgi tendon organs. - This information allows the cerebellum to compare intended movements with actual movements, thereby **smoothing and coordinating voluntary motor activity**. *Involved in planning and programming motor activities* - This function is primarily attributed to the **cerebral cortex** (e.g., premotor and supplementary motor areas) and the **basal ganglia**. - While the cerebellum is involved in motor learning and fine-tuning, the initial **planning and programming** of complex movements are cortical functions. *Involved in maintaining equilibrium* - Maintaining equilibrium and balance is primarily a function of the **vestibulocerebellum** (flocculonodular lobe), which receives input from the vestibular system. - While the spinocerebellum indirectly influences balance by coordinating limb movements, its direct role is less pronounced than that of the vestibulocerebellum. *Facilitates learning through vestibulo-ocular reflex changes* - This function is specific to the **vestibulocerebellum** and is crucial for adapting the vestibulo-ocular reflex (VOR) to maintain visual stability during head movements. - The spinocerebellar tract's primary role is proprioception for limb coordination, not VOR adaptation.
Question 264: What happens to the concentration of inulin as fluid passes through the Proximal Convoluted Tubule (PCT)?
- A. Concentration of inulin increases (Correct Answer)
- B. Concentration of urea remains constant
- C. Concentration of HCO3- increases
- D. Concentration of Na+ decreases
Explanation: ***Concentration of inulin increases*** - Inulin is **freely filtered** at the glomerulus and is neither reabsorbed nor secreted along the renal tubule, making it an excellent marker for **glomerular filtration rate (GFR)**. - As water is reabsorbed from the PCT, the volume of tubular fluid decreases, causing the concentration of **unreabsorbed solutes**, like inulin, to increase. *Concentration of urea remains constant* - Urea is **reabsorbed** along the tubule, though passively; its concentration typically **increases** initially in the PCT due to water reabsorption, but then decreases as some is reabsorbed. - The statement is incorrect because urea concentration changes significantly throughout the nephron, particularly increasing as water is reabsorbed and then decreasing with some reabsorption. *Concentration of HCO3- increases* - The majority (approximately 80-90%) of **bicarbonate (HCO3-)** is reabsorbed in the PCT, primarily through its conversion to CO2 within the tubular lumen and then back to HCO3- intracellularly. - Therefore, the concentration of HCO3- in the tubular fluid actually **decreases** significantly as fluid passes through the PCT. *Concentration of Na+ decreases* - **Sodium (Na+)** is actively reabsorbed along the entire nephron, with about 65-70% reabsorbed in the PCT. - While Na+ is reabsorbed, water follows passively, so its concentration in the tubular fluid remains relatively **iso-osmotic** with plasma, meaning its concentration does not significantly decrease as fluid passes through the PCT, remaining fairly constant.
Question 265: What is the average daily volume of pancreatic secretion in humans?
- A. 5.0 L
- B. 10 L
- C. 1.5 L (Correct Answer)
- D. 2.5 L
Explanation: ***1.5 L*** - The **pancreas** produces approximately **1.5 liters (1200-1500 mL) of pancreatic juice** daily in humans. - This secretion is rich in **digestive enzymes** (amylase, lipase, proteases) and **bicarbonate** for neutralization of gastric acid in the duodenum. - This is the standard value cited in **major physiology textbooks** (Ganong, Guyton & Hall). *2.5 L* - **2.5 liters** overestimates the typical daily pancreatic secretion volume. - This value may represent **combined secretions** from multiple sources or confuse pancreatic output with total upper GI secretions. - Normal pancreatic secretion ranges from **1-2 liters**, making 2.5 L above the physiological range. *5.0 L* - **5.0 liters** represents an abnormally high volume for daily pancreatic secretion alone. - This volume is closer to the **total daily secretions** from stomach, pancreas, and bile combined. - Not consistent with **normal pancreatic physiology**. *10 L* - **10 liters** is grossly excessive for pancreatic secretion and represents approximately the **total volume of all gastrointestinal secretions** (saliva, gastric, pancreatic, bile, intestinal) combined daily. - This is **not physiologically realistic** for pancreatic output alone.
Question 266: Which of the following hormones does not mediate its action through cAMP?
- A. Glucagon
- B. Follicle stimulating hormone
- C. Estrogen (Correct Answer)
- D. Luteinizing hormone
Explanation: ***Estrogen*** - **Estrogen** is a **steroid hormone** that mediates its action by binding to intracellular receptors, forming a complex that directly influences gene transcription. - Steroid hormones, due to their **lipophilicity**, can cross the cell membrane and do not typically rely on cell surface receptors or second messengers like cAMP. *Glucagon* - **Glucagon** acts on a **G protein-coupled receptor (GPCR)**, specifically a Gs-coupled receptor, leading to the activation of adenylyl cyclase. - This activation increases the intracellular concentration of **cAMP**, which then activates protein kinase A to mediate its effects, primarily on glucose metabolism. *Follicle stimulating hormone* - **FSH** binds to a **GPCR** on target cells, activating the Gs protein pathway. - This activation stimulates **adenylyl cyclase** and increases intracellular **cAMP** levels, which are critical for its role in gamete development. *Luteinizing hormone* - **LH**, like FSH, binds to a cell surface **GPCR** that activates the Gs protein. - This leads to the stimulation of **adenylyl cyclase** and an increase in **cAMP**, mediating its effects on steroidogenesis and ovulation.