Anatomy
6 questionsWhich structure(s) passes behind the inguinal ligament:
All of the following arteries are branches of the coeliac trunk, EXCEPT which one?
Which statement accurately describes a characteristic of synovial joints?
The right coronary artery supplies blood to all of the following structures, except?
From which ribs does the spleen extend?
Development of labia majora is from -
NEET-PG 2012 - Anatomy NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 251: Which structure(s) passes behind the inguinal ligament:
- A. Femoral branch of genitofemoral nerve
- B. Femoral vein
- C. Psoas major
- D. All of the options (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Correct: All of the options*** All three structures pass deep to (behind) the inguinal ligament as they transition from the pelvis/abdomen into the thigh [1]. The inguinal ligament forms the superior border of the femoral triangle [1]. ***Femoral branch of genitofemoral nerve (Correct)*** - Pierces the **psoas major** muscle and descends along its anterior surface - Passes through the **lacuna musculorum** (lateral compartment) deep to the inguinal ligament - Lies **lateral to the femoral artery** - Provides sensory innervation to the skin over the femoral triangle ***Femoral vein (Correct)*** - Continuation of the popliteal vein from the lower limb - Passes through the **lacuna vasorum** (medial compartment/femoral canal) within the **femoral sheath** - Located **medial to the femoral artery** behind the inguinal ligament [1] - Carries deoxygenated blood back to the heart via the external iliac vein ***Psoas major (Correct)*** - Major hip flexor muscle originating from lumbar vertebrae (T12-L5) - Passes through the **lacuna musculorum** deep to the inguinal ligament - Located **lateral to the femoral vessels** - Combines with iliacus to form iliopsoas, inserting on the lesser trochanter of femur
Question 252: All of the following arteries are branches of the coeliac trunk, EXCEPT which one?
- A. Splenic artery
- B. Left gastric artery
- C. Common hepatic artery
- D. Right gastric artery (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Right gastric artery*** - The **right gastric artery** typically originates from the **proper hepatic artery**, which is a branch of the common hepatic artery. - Therefore, it is not a direct branch of the coeliac trunk itself. *Left gastric artery* - The **left gastric artery** is one of the three main direct branches of the **coeliac trunk**. - It supplies the lesser curvature of the stomach and the abdominal esophagus. *Splenic artery* - The **splenic artery** is another major direct branch of the **coeliac trunk**. - It supplies the spleen, pancreas, and parts of the stomach via various branches. *Common hepatic artery* - The **common hepatic artery** is the third main direct branch of the **coeliac trunk**. - It gives rise to the proper hepatic artery and the gastroduodenal artery, supplying the liver, gallbladder, pylorus, and duodenum.
Question 253: Which statement accurately describes a characteristic of synovial joints?
- A. Hyaline cartilage covers the articular surfaces of synovial joints. (Correct Answer)
- B. The metacarpo-phalangeal joint is a condyloid joint.
- C. Cartilage can sometimes divide the joint into two cavities.
- D. Stability is inversely proportional to mobility in synovial joints.
Explanation: ***Hyaline cartilage covers the articular surfaces of synovial joints.*** - The articular surfaces of bones within a **synovial joint** are covered by a thin layer of **hyaline cartilage**, providing a smooth, low-friction surface for movement [1]. - This **articular cartilage** absorbs shock and protects the underlying bone from wear and tear [1]. - This is a **universal structural characteristic** of all synovial joints, making it the most accurate answer. *The metacarpo-phalangeal joint is a condyloid joint.* - While this statement is factually true (MCP joints are indeed **condyloid/ellipsoid joints** allowing movement in two planes), it describes a **specific type** of synovial joint, not a general characteristic of all synovial joints. - The question asks for a characteristic that describes synovial joints as a category, not an example of one specific joint classification. - This makes it incorrect as the best answer to this question. *Cartilage can sometimes divide the joint into two cavities.* - This statement refers to an **articular disc** or **meniscus**, which is a fibrocartilaginous structure that can partially or completely divide a synovial joint cavity. - This feature is present in **some** synovial joints (like the knee or temporomandibular joint) but is **not universal**. - Since it's not a characteristic of all synovial joints, it's not the best answer. *Stability is inversely proportional to mobility in synovial joints.* - Generally, there is an **inverse relationship** between **stability** and **mobility** in joints; joints designed for great mobility (e.g., shoulder) tend to be less stable, and vice-versa (e.g., hip). - However, this describes a **functional principle** or trade-off rather than a **structural characteristic** that defines synovial joints. - While true, it's not the defining characteristic being asked for in this question.
Question 254: The right coronary artery supplies blood to all of the following structures, except?
- A. Posterior wall of left ventricle
- B. SA node
- C. Anterior 2/3 of ventricular septum (Correct Answer)
- D. AV node
Explanation: ***Anterior 2/3 of ventricular septum*** - The **anterior two-thirds of the interventricular septum** is primarily supplied by the **septal branches of the left anterior descending artery** (LAD) [1], a branch of the left coronary artery. - Therefore, the right coronary artery does not typically supply this region. *SA node* - The **SA node** (sinoatrial node) is the heart's natural pacemaker and receives its blood supply from the **right coronary artery** in about 60% of individuals. - Occlusion of the RCA can lead to symptomatic **bradycardia** or **SA node dysfunction**. *AV node* - The **AV node** (atrioventricular node), crucial for coordinating ventricular contraction, is supplied by the **right coronary artery** in approximately 90% of individuals [1]. - Infarcts in the RCA territory can manifest as various degrees of **heart block**. *Posterior wall of left ventricle* - The **posterior wall of the left ventricle** is predominantly supplied by the **posterior descending artery (PDA)**, which in about 80% of people, is a terminal branch of the **right coronary artery** [1]. - This supply is vital for the contractile function of the left ventricle's posterior aspect.
Question 255: From which ribs does the spleen extend?
- A. 5th to 9th rib
- B. 2nd to 5th rib
- C. 11th to 12th rib
- D. 9th to 11th rib (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***9th to 11th rib*** - The **spleen** is located in the **left upper quadrant** of the abdomen, deep to the 9th, 10th, and 11th ribs. - Its protected position beneath these ribs makes it vulnerable to injury from trauma to the left lower chest or upper abdomen. *5th to 9th rib* - This range primarily covers the location of the **heart** and the upper part of the **lungs**. - While the spleen is superior to other abdominal organs, it does not extend as high as the 5th rib. *2nd to 5th rib* - This region is mainly associated with the **upper lobes of the lungs** and the **superior mediastinum**. - The spleen is an abdominal organ and is situated much lower in the thoracic cavity. *11th to 12th rib* - This range is too low and posterior for the typical position of the spleen, especially for its superior border. - The 12th rib primarily overlies the **kidneys** and the more inferior aspects of the diaphragm.
Question 256: Development of labia majora is from -
- A. Urogenital sinus
- B. Mullerian duct
- C. Genital ridge
- D. Genital swelling (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Genital swelling*** - The **labia majora** develop from the **genital (labioscrotal) swellings** in females, which are homologous to the scrotum in males [3]. - These swellings enlarge and fuse anteriorly to form the mons pubis and posteriorly to form the posterior commissures of the labia majora. *Urogenital sinus* - The **urogenital sinus** gives rise to structures like the **bladder**, **urethra**, and parts of the **vagina** in females [2]. - It does not contribute to the formation of the external labial structures. *Mullerian duct* - The **Mullerian (paramesonephric) ducts** develop into the **fallopian tubes**, **uterus**, and the **upper third of the vagina** [1], [2]. - These structures are internal reproductive organs and do not form external genitalia like the labia majora. *Genital ridge* - The **genital ridge** is the embryonic precursor to the **gonads** (ovaries or testes). - It differentiates into either ovaries or testes and does not directly form external genital structures.
Pathology
1 questionsIn which organ are corpora amylacea typically observed in a pathological context?
NEET-PG 2012 - Pathology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 251: In which organ are corpora amylacea typically observed in a pathological context?
- A. Thymus
- B. Lymph node
- C. Spleen
- D. Prostate (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Prostate*** - **Corpora amylacea**, also known as prostatic concretions, are common, benign findings in the prostate gland, especially with increasing age. - They are composed of glycoproteins and often found within the **acini and ducts of the prostate**. *Thymus* - The thymus is known for **Hassall's corpuscles**, which are epithelial reticular cells arranged concentrically, playing a role in T-cell selection. - **Corpora amylacea** are not typically found in the normal thymus. *Lymph node* - Lymph nodes are characterized by their lymphoid follicles, germinal centers, and medullary cords. - While they can have various inclusions or changes in disease states, **corpora amylacea** are not a typical pathological finding in lymph nodes. *Spleen* - The spleen is primarily involved in filtering blood and immune responses, with distinct red and white pulp regions. - **Corpora amylacea** are not associated with the normal or pathological histology of the spleen.
Physiology
3 questionsIn bladder injury, pain is referred to which of the following areas?
What is the consequence of tibial nerve injury/palsy?
Which of the following statements regarding the lower esophageal sphincter is TRUE?
NEET-PG 2012 - Physiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 251: In bladder injury, pain is referred to which of the following areas?
- A. Flank
- B. Upper part of thigh
- C. Lower abdominal wall (Correct Answer)
- D. Penis
Explanation: ***Correct Option: Lower abdominal wall*** - **Referred pain** from the bladder is typically felt in the **suprapubic region** of the lower abdominal wall due to shared visceral and somatic afferent innervation. - The **parietal peritoneum** overlying the bladder is innervated by somatic nerves that also supply the abdominal wall. - This convergence of visceral afferents from the bladder and somatic afferents from the abdominal wall at the spinal cord level (particularly S2-S4) results in referred pain to the suprapubic area. *Incorrect Option: Upper part of thigh* - Pain in the upper thigh is more commonly associated with conditions affecting the **hip joint**, **femoral nerve**, or **inguinal region**. - Bladder innervation does not primarily refer pain to the upper thigh. *Incorrect Option: Flank* - Flank pain is typically associated with conditions of the **kidneys** or **ureters**, such as **nephrolithiasis** or **pyelonephritis**. - The bladder's referred pain pattern does not usually extend to the flank. *Incorrect Option: Penis* - While bladder irritation can sometimes cause sensations in the penis, it is more often associated with conditions like **urethritis**, **cystitis**, or **prostatitis**. - Direct referred pain from bladder injury to the penis is less common than to the lower abdominal wall.
Question 252: What is the consequence of tibial nerve injury/palsy?
- A. Loss of plantar flexion (Correct Answer)
- B. Dorsiflexion of foot at ankle joint
- C. Loss of sensation of dorsum of foot
- D. Paralysis of muscles of anterior compartment of leg
Explanation: **Loss of plantar flexion** - The **tibial nerve** innervates the muscles of the **posterior compartment of the leg**, which are primarily responsible for **plantar flexion** of the foot. - Injury to this nerve directly impairs the function of muscles like the gastrocnemius, soleus, and tibialis posterior, leading to a significant loss of the ability to point the foot downwards. *Dorsiflexion of foot at ankle joint* - **Dorsiflexion** is primarily mediated by muscles in the **anterior compartment of the leg**, such as the tibialis anterior, which are innervated by the **deep fibular nerve**. - Tibial nerve injury would not directly affect these muscles or their function; rather, it leads to issues with the opposing action. *Loss of sensation of dorsum of foot* - Sensation to the **dorsum of the foot** is primarily supplied by the **superficial fibular nerve** (for most of the dorsum) and the **deep fibular nerve** (for the first web space). - While the tibial nerve provides sensation to the sole of the foot, it does not typically innervate the dorsum. *Paralysis of muscles of anterior compartment of leg* - The muscles of the **anterior compartment of the leg** (e.g., tibialis anterior, extensor digitorum longus, extensor hallucis longus) are innervated by the **deep fibular nerve**. - A tibial nerve injury would paralyze muscles in the posterior compartment, not the anterior compartment.
Question 253: Which of the following statements regarding the lower esophageal sphincter is TRUE?
- A. It relaxes in response to swallowing. (Correct Answer)
- B. It remains contracted during swallowing to prevent regurgitation.
- C. Its tone is primarily influenced by the myogenic properties of the smooth muscle.
- D. It contracts in response to gastric distension.
Explanation: ***It relaxes in response to swallowing.*** - The **lower esophageal sphincter (LES)** normally maintains high resting tone to prevent gastroesophageal reflux but **relaxes completely during swallowing** to allow passage of food into the stomach. - This relaxation (called **receptive relaxation**) is mediated by **vagal nerve stimulation** through release of nitric oxide (NO) and vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP). - The relaxation occurs **before the peristaltic wave arrives**, allowing coordinated transit of the bolus. *It remains contracted during swallowing to prevent regurgitation.* - This is **incorrect** - the LES must **relax during swallowing** to allow food passage into the stomach. - Failure of LES relaxation during swallowing is the pathophysiology of **achalasia**, leading to dysphagia. - The LES only maintains contraction between swallows to prevent reflux. *Its tone is primarily influenced by the myogenic properties of the smooth muscle.* - While the LES contains smooth muscle with intrinsic myogenic properties, its tone is **predominantly regulated by neural and hormonal factors**. - **Neural control:** Vagal cholinergic pathways (increase tone), non-adrenergic non-cholinergic (NANC) pathways with NO and VIP (decrease tone). - **Hormonal factors:** Gastrin increases tone, while progesterone, CCK, and secretin decrease tone. *It contracts in response to gastric distension.* - This is **incorrect** - gastric distension actually triggers **transient LES relaxations (TLESRs)**, which are the primary mechanism of physiological reflux. - TLESRs are vagally mediated reflex responses that allow venting of gastric air. - Increased LES contraction in response to gastric distension would be counterproductive.