Anatomy
5 questionsWhich of the following is NOT a surface marking of the oblique fissure of the lung?
Which structure is not seen at the L3 level?
In which region of the human spine is the number of vertebrae usually constant?
Which of the following structures is not derived from the ectoderm?
Nutrient artery runs ?
NEET-PG 2012 - Anatomy NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 201: Which of the following is NOT a surface marking of the oblique fissure of the lung?
- A. 6th costal cartilage
- B. T3
- C. 5th rib
- D. 7th rib (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***7th rib*** - The **oblique fissure** typically extends from the spine at approximately the **T3 vertebral level** anteriorly to the **6th costal cartilage**. [1] - The **7th rib** is generally inferior to the typical anterior termination point of the oblique fissure. [1] *T3* - The **oblique fissure** begins posteriorly at the level of the **spinous process of T3**. [1] - This marks the superior-posterior extent of the fissure on the surface. *5th rib* - The **oblique fissure** crosses the **5th intercostal space** on the lateral chest wall. [1] - This point helps map the fissure's path between its posterior and anterior endpoints. *6th costal cartilage* - The **oblique fissure** terminates anteriorly near the **6th costal cartilage** in the midclavicular line. [1] - This represents the inferior-anterior most point of the fissure on the chest wall.
Question 202: Which structure is not seen at the L3 level?
- A. Iliac vessels
- B. Aorta
- C. Coeliac trunk (Correct Answer)
- D. IVC
Explanation: ***Coeliac trunk*** - The **coeliac trunk** typically arises from the abdominal **aorta** at the level of **T12-L1**, which is significantly higher than L3. - It then immediately branches into the **left gastric**, **splenic**, and **common hepatic arteries** to supply foregut structures. *Iliac vessels* - The **common iliac arteries** and veins typically bifurcate from the **aorta** and **IVC** around the L4-L5 level. - Their presence, or the start of their formation, can be observed near or just above **L3**, depending on individual anatomical variation and how "at the L3 level" is interpreted (e.g., within the L3 vertebral body's span). *Aorta* - The **abdominal aorta** descends along the posterior abdominal wall and is a prominent structure at the **L3 level**. - It typically bifurcates into the common iliac arteries at the level of **L4**, meaning it is still a large, undivided vessel at L3. *IVC* - The **inferior vena cava (IVC)** ascends through the abdomen and is a significant vascular structure at the **L3 level**. - It is formed by the union of the common iliac veins at the level of **L5** and continues superiorly.
Question 203: In which region of the human spine is the number of vertebrae usually constant?
- A. Cervical (Correct Answer)
- B. Thoracic
- C. Lumbar
- D. Sacral
Explanation: ***Cervical*** - The human cervical spine almost universally consists of **seven vertebrae (C1-C7)**, making it the most constant region in terms of vertebral number. - This consistent number is crucial for normal neck movement and protection of vital neurological structures. *Thoracic* - While typically having **12 vertebrae**, variations in the thoracic region can occur, with some individuals having 11 or 13 due to transitional vertebrae. - These variations are less common but indicate that the number is not as strictly constant as in the cervical spine. *Lumbar* - The lumbar spine commonly has **five vertebrae (L1-L5)**, but variations such as four or six lumbar vertebrae can be seen due to lumbarization or sacralization. - **Lumbarization** involves the first sacral segment detaching, while **sacralization** involves the fifth lumbar vertebra fusing with the sacrum. *Sacral* - The sacrum is formed by the fusion of **five sacral vertebrae (S1-S5)**, but the number of *individual identifiable* vertebrae before fusion, or in cases of incomplete fusion, can vary. - The sacral region itself is a fused structure, and while it originates from five segments, the concept of "number of vertebrae" can be ambiguous due to its characteristic fusion.
Question 204: Which of the following structures is not derived from the ectoderm?
- A. Brain
- B. Retina
- C. Eustachian tube (Correct Answer)
- D. Lens
Explanation: ***Eustachian tube*** - The **Eustachian tube** (auditory tube) is derived from the **endoderm**, specifically from the first pharyngeal pouch. - It connects the nasopharynx to the middle ear and is responsible for equalizing pressure [1]. *Lens* - The **lens** of the eye develops from the surface ectoderm through an invagination called the **lens placode**. - This ectodermal origin is crucial for its transparency and refractive properties. *Brain* - The **brain** is a primary derivative of the ectoderm, specifically the **neural tube**, which forms from the neural plate during neurulation. - This ectodermal origin gives rise to the entire central nervous system. *Retina* - The **retina** of the eye, along with the optic nerve, develops from the **neuroectoderm** (a part of the neural tube). - Its ectodermal origin is essential for its light-sensing function.
Question 205: Nutrient artery runs ?
- A. Away from epiphysis (Correct Answer)
- B. Towards metaphysis
- C. None of the options
- D. Away from metaphysis
Explanation: ***Away from epiphysis*** - The **nutrient artery** runs away from the **dominant (faster-growing) epiphysis** towards the non-dominant end of the bone. - This follows the classic anatomical rule: **"To the elbow, from the knee"** - nutrient arteries point towards the elbow in upper limb bones and away from the knee in lower limb bones. - The **nutrient foramen** is directed obliquely away from the more actively growing end, established during bone development. - Examples: In the humerus, it runs towards the elbow (away from proximal epiphysis); in the femur, it runs away from the knee (away from distal epiphysis). *Towards metaphysis* - While the artery does course towards the metaphyseal region of the slower-growing end, this option is less anatomically precise. - The standard teaching emphasizes the relationship with the **dominant epiphysis** rather than the metaphysis. *Away from metaphysis* - This is **incorrect** - the nutrient artery actually runs **towards** the metaphysis of the non-dominant end. - It runs **away from** the dominant epiphysis, not away from the metaphysis. *None of the options* - This is incorrect as **"Away from epiphysis"** correctly describes the direction of the nutrient artery relative to the dominant growing end.
Biochemistry
1 questionsWhich glycogen storage disease also presents as a lysosomal storage disease?
NEET-PG 2012 - Biochemistry NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 201: Which glycogen storage disease also presents as a lysosomal storage disease?
- A. Von Gierke's disease
- B. McArdle's disease
- C. Andersen's disease
- D. Pompe's disease (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Pompe's disease*** - Also known as **glycogen storage disease type II**, it is caused by a deficiency of **acid alpha-glucosidase (GAA)**, a *lysosomal enzyme*. - This deficiency leads to the accumulation of **glycogen in lysosomes**, particularly affecting muscle tissue, thereby earning its classification as both a glycogen storage disease and a lysosomal storage disease. *Von Gierke's disease* - This is **glycogen storage disease type I** and is due to a deficiency in **glucose-6-phosphatase**. - It primarily affects the **liver and kidneys**, causing severe **hypoglycemia** and **lactic acidosis**, but it is not classified as a lysosomal storage disease. *McArdle's disease* - This is **glycogen storage disease type V**, caused by a deficiency in **muscle glycogen phosphorylase (myophosphorylase)**. - It manifests as **exercise intolerance** and muscle pain, but it does not involve lysosomal enzyme defects or glycogen accumulation in lysosomes. *Andersen's disease* - This is **glycogen storage disease type IV**, caused by a deficiency in the **glycogen branching enzyme**. - It leads to the formation of **abnormal glycogen structures**, primarily affecting the liver and causing early liver failure, but it is not a lysosomal storage disorder.
Obstetrics and Gynecology
1 questionsBlastocyst makes contact with endometrium on ?
NEET-PG 2012 - Obstetrics and Gynecology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 201: Blastocyst makes contact with endometrium on ?
- A. < 3 days
- B. 5 - 7 days (Correct Answer)
- C. 8 - 11 days
- D. 15-16 days
Explanation: ***5-7 days*** - The **blastocyst makes initial contact** (apposition) with the **endometrium** around **day 5-6 after fertilization**. - **Implantation**, which includes adhesion and invasion, typically begins around day 6 and is complete by day 10. - This timeframe allows the blastocyst to travel from the fallopian tube to the uterus and for the uterine lining to be optimally prepared. *< 3 days* - Within the first few days after fertilization, the zygote is still undergoing **cleavage** and development into a **morula**, then a young blastocyst, while traveling down the fallopian tube. - It has not yet reached the uterus or developed sufficiently to interact with the endometrium. *8-11 days* - By 8-11 days, the process of implantation is usually **well underway or completed**, with the blastocyst already invading the endometrial wall. - Initial contact and attachment occur prior to this period. *15-16 days* - This timeframe is well beyond the typical window for initial blastocyst contact and implantation. - By 15-16 days post-fertilization, the embryo would be undergoing **gastrulation** and early organogenesis, assuming successful implantation.
Physiology
3 questionsPeripheral and central chemoreceptors may both contribute to the increased ventilation that occurs as a result of which of the following?
Which of the following components are included in microcirculation?
Mean arterial pressure is calculated as:
NEET-PG 2012 - Physiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 201: Peripheral and central chemoreceptors may both contribute to the increased ventilation that occurs as a result of which of the following?
- A. A decrease in arterial oxygen content
- B. A decrease in arterial blood pressure
- C. An increase in arterial carbon dioxide tension (Correct Answer)
- D. A decrease in arterial oxygen tension
Explanation: ***An increase in arterial carbon dioxide tension*** - An increase in **arterial PCO2** (hypercapnia) leads to a rapid decrease in the **pH of the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)**, which strongly stimulates **central chemoreceptors** in the medulla. - While overwhelmingly driven by central chemoreceptors, a significant increase in **arterial PCO2** also causes a slight decrease in **arterial pH**, which can additionally stimulate **peripheral chemoreceptors** in the carotid and aortic bodies, leading to increased ventilation. *A decrease in arterial oxygen content* - A decrease in **arterial oxygen content** (e.g., due to anemia or carbon monoxide poisoning) without a significant drop in **arterial PO2** primarily affects oxygen delivery to tissues. - It does not directly stimulate peripheral chemoreceptors, which are sensitive to **PO2**, not content, nor does it affect central chemoreceptors directly to increase ventilation in this manner. *A decrease in arterial blood pressure* - A decrease in **arterial blood pressure** is sensed by **baroreceptors** and primarily triggers cardiovascular reflexes (e.g., increased heart rate and vasoconstriction) to restore blood pressure. - It does not directly stimulate peripheral or central chemoreceptors to significantly increase ventilation unless severe hypoperfusion leads to significant changes in arterial blood gases. *A decrease in arterial oxygen tension* - A decrease in **arterial oxygen tension (PO2)**, especially when it falls below approximately 60 mmHg, acts as a potent stimulus for **peripheral chemoreceptors**. - However, **central chemoreceptors** are primarily sensitive to **PCO2** and CSF pH, and a decrease in **arterial PO2** alone has little direct effect on their activity.
Question 202: Which of the following components are included in microcirculation?
- A. Capillaries
- B. Aorta
- C. Arteries and veins
- D. Capillaries, venules, and arterioles (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Capillaries, venules, and arterioles*** - **Microcirculation** is the portion of the **circulatory system** that includes the **smallest blood vessels**, specifically the **arterioles**, **capillaries**, and **venules**. - These vessels are crucial for the **delivery of oxygen** and **nutrients** to tissues and the removal of waste products. *Capillaries* - While **capillaries** are a vital part of **microcirculation** and the primary site of nutrient and waste exchange, they alone do not encompass the entire microcirculatory unit. - The microcirculation also includes the vessels that feed into and drain from the capillaries: the **arterioles** and **venules**. *Aorta* - The **aorta** is the **largest artery** in the body, part of the **macrocirculation**, which distributes blood from the heart to the systemic circulation. - It is not considered part of the **microcirculation** due to its large size and primary function as a high-pressure conduit rather than a site of exchange. *Arteries and veins* - **Arteries** and **veins** are primarily components of the **macrocirculation**, responsible for transporting blood to and from the systemic and pulmonary circuits. - While arterioles and venules (small arteries and veins) are part of the microcirculation, the broader terms "arteries" and "veins" typically refer to the larger vessels and do not exclusively define the microcirculatory network.
Question 203: Mean arterial pressure is calculated as:
- A. (DBP+3SBP)/2
- B. (SBP+3DBP)/2
- C. (DBP+2SBP)/3
- D. (SBP+2DBP)/3 (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***(SBP+2DBP)/3*** - This formula accurately calculates **mean arterial pressure (MAP)**, emphasizing the longer duration of diastole compared to systole in the cardiac cycle. - The diastolic blood pressure (**DBP**) is weighted twice as much as the systolic blood pressure (**SBP**) to reflect this physiological difference. *(DBP+2SBP)/3* - This formula incorrectly weighs the diastolic pressure less and the systolic pressure more, which does not reflect the **physiological duration of the cardiac cycle**. - While it attempts to average pressures, it does not correctly represent the **mean perfusion pressure**. *(SBP+3DBP)/2* - This formula is inaccurate for calculating MAP as the **denominator should be 3**, not 2, to account for the three components being averaged (one SBP and two DBP). - It also disproportionately weights **DBP** too high relative to the standard physiological formula. *(DBP+3SBP)/2* - This formula is incorrect as it applies an **excessive weighting to SBP** and uses an incorrect denominator. - It would yield a significantly higher and inaccurate value for **mean arterial pressure**.