Anatomy
5 questionsAll are derived from ectoderm except for which of the following?
Sympathetic supply to the heart arises from which of the following spinal segments?
Which of the following is derived from endoderm?
Which of the following is not the part of ethmoid bone?
Primary and secondary palates are divided by
NEET-PG 2012 - Anatomy NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 171: All are derived from ectoderm except for which of the following?
- A. Hair follicles
- B. Nails
- C. Lens of the eye
- D. Adrenal cortex (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Adrenal cortex*** - The adrenal cortex is derived from the **intermediate mesoderm**, specifically from the cells lining the posterior abdominal wall. The cells migrate to develop into the adrenal cortex. - It produces various steroid hormones, including **aldosterone**, **cortisol**, and **androgens**, which regulate diverse bodily functions. *Lens of the eye* - The lens of the eye is derived from the **surface ectoderm**. It forms from an invagination of the surface ectoderm called the lens placode. - Its primary function is to **focus light** onto the retina. *Hair follicles* - Hair follicles develop from the **surface ectoderm** [1]; they are invaginations of the epidermis that extend into the dermis. - They produce hair, which provides **insulation** and **protection** [1]. *Nails* - Nails are also derivatives of the **surface ectoderm**, forming thickened plates on the dorsal surface of the distal phalanges. - They provide **protection** to the fingertips and aid in grasping objects.
Question 172: Sympathetic supply to the heart arises from which of the following spinal segments?
- A. T1 to T5 (Correct Answer)
- B. T2 to T6
- C. T3 to T7
- D. T4 to T8
Explanation: The preganglionic sympathetic fibers that innervate the heart originate from the lateral horns of the thoracic spinal segments T1 to T5. These fibers synapse in the cervical and upper thoracic sympathetic ganglia, from which postganglionic fibers extend to the heart. While there is some overlap, the primary and most significant sympathetic innervation to the heart stems predominantly from T1 to T5, making T2 to T6 a less precise answer. Including T6 would extend past the typical primary cardiac sympathetic innervation, which largely concludes at T5. This range is too caudal and largely beyond the principal segments providing sympathetic innervation to the heart. Segments T6-T8 are more involved in sympathetic supply to abdominal organs and other structures rather than direct cardiac control.
Question 173: Which of the following is derived from endoderm?
- A. Gall bladder (Correct Answer)
- B. Lens
- C. Spleen
- D. Lymph nodes
Explanation: ***Gall bladder*** - The **gallbladder**, along with other organs of the **gastrointestinal tract** such as the liver, pancreas, and epithelial lining of the digestive and respiratory systems, originates from the **endoderm** [1]. - The endoderm forms the primitive gut tube, from which these accessory digestive organs bud off. *Lens* - The **lens of the eye** is derived from the **surface ectoderm**, which invaginates to form the lens vesicle. - This contrasts with the neural ectoderm, which forms the neural tube and retina. *Spleen* - The **spleen** is derived from the **mesoderm**, specifically from mesenchymal cells in the dorsal mesentery of the stomach. - It is involved in blood filtration and immune responses, making it a lymphoid organ. *Lymph nodes* - **Lymph nodes** are primarily derived from the **mesoderm**, specifically from specialized mesenchymal cells that form their connective tissue capsule and stroma. - The immune cells within the lymph nodes, such as lymphocytes, originate from hematopoietic stem cells that migrate into these developing structures.
Question 174: Which of the following is not the part of ethmoid bone?
- A. Agger nasi
- B. Crista galli
- C. Uncinate process
- D. Inferior turbinate (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Inferior turbinate*** - The **inferior turbinate** (or inferior nasal concha) is a separate paired facial bone, distinct from the ethmoid bone. - It articulates with the maxilla, lacrimal, palatine, and ethmoid bones but is not a component of the ethmoid. *Agger nasi* - The **agger nasi** is an anatomical variant, an anterior expansion of the ethmoid air cells, and is thus functionally part of the ethmoid complex. - While not a distinct bone, it is an **ethmoid cell** that can be found in the anterior aspect of the middle meatus. *Crista galli* - The **crista galli** is a prominent, upward projection from the cribriform plate of the ethmoid bone, serving as an attachment point for the falx cerebri. - It is an integral and easily recognizable part of the **ethmoid bone**. *Uncinate process* - The **uncinate process** is a sickle-shaped bony projection that arises from the inferior aspect of the ethmoid bone. - It forms the anterior boundary of the **hiatus semilunaris** and is crucial for the drainage of the frontal and maxillary sinuses.
Question 175: Primary and secondary palates are divided by
- A. Greater palatine foramen
- B. Canine teeth
- C. Alveolar arch
- D. Incisive foramen (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Incisive foramen*** - The **incisive foramen** is an anatomical landmark located just posterior to the central incisors, and it marks the boundary between the developmentally distinct primary and secondary palates. - The **primary palate** develops from the median palatine process, while the **secondary palate** develops from the palatal shelves of the maxillary prominences [1]. *Greater palatine foramen* - The **greater palatine foramen** is located near the posterior border of the hard palate, transmitting the greater palatine nerve and vessels. - It lies within the **secondary palate** and does not delineate the boundary between the primary and secondary palatal structures. *Canine teeth* - The **canine teeth** are part of the dental arch and play a role in mastication. - While located in the anterior part of the oral cavity, they are not a developmental or anatomical boundary marker for palatal divisions [1]. *Alveolar arch* - The **alveolar arch** is the bone that supports the teeth, forming the curved ridge of the maxilla and mandible [1]. - It is distinct from the palate and does not serve as a divider between the primary and secondary palatal components.
Anesthesiology
1 questionsWhich of the following is true about coeliac plexus block?
NEET-PG 2012 - Anesthesiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 171: Which of the following is true about coeliac plexus block?
- A. Usually done unilaterally
- B. Most common side effects include diarrhea and hypotension (Correct Answer)
- C. Located retroperitoneally at the level of L3
- D. Useful for painful conditions of the lower abdomen
Explanation: ***Most common side effects include diarrhea and hypotension*** - A coeliac plexus block interrupts **sympathetic innervation** to the upper abdominal organs, which can lead to parasympathetic dominance. - This imbalance often results in **increased gastrointestinal motility (diarrhea)** and **vasodilation (hypotension)** as common side effects. *Located retroperitoneally at the level of L3* - The coeliac plexus is typically located **retroperitoneally** at the level of the **T12-L1 vertebrae**, not L3. - Its position is generally superior to the renal arteries, which are closer to L1-L2. *Usually done unilaterally* - A coeliac plexus block is almost always performed **bilaterally** or with a single posterior approach aiming for bilateral spread to effectively block the plexus. - The coeliac plexus is an extensive network, and a unilateral block would likely provide inadequate pain relief. *Useful for painful conditions of the lower abdomen* - The coeliac plexus primarily innervates **upper abdominal organs** (e.g., pancreas, liver, stomach, small intestine, kidneys, adrenal glands). - It is therefore generally **ineffective for lower abdominal pain**, which is innervated by different sympathetic plexuses (e.g., superior and inferior hypogastric plexuses).
Biochemistry
1 questionsWhat are isoenzymes?
NEET-PG 2012 - Biochemistry NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 171: What are isoenzymes?
- A. Physically same forms of different enzymes
- B. Forms of same enzyme that catalyze different reactions
- C. Forms of different enzyme that catalyze same reactions
- D. Physically distinct forms of the same enzyme (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Physically distinct forms of the same enzyme*** - Isoenzymes are **multiple forms of an enzyme** that catalyze the **same reaction** but differ in their **physical or biochemical properties**, such as electrophoretic mobility, optimal pH, or kinetic parameters. - These differences usually arise from **genetic variations** (different genes encoding isoforms) or **post-translational modifications** (e.g., phosphorylation, glycosylation). *Physically same forms of different enzymes* - This statement is incorrect as isoenzymes are forms of the **same enzyme**, not different enzymes. - While different enzymes can catalyze similar reactions in certain pathways, they are not referred to as isoenzymes if they are structurally identical. *Forms of same enzyme that catalyze different reactions* - This describes enzymes with **broad substrate specificity** or those that act on different substrates but are not necessarily isoenzymes. - Isoenzymes specifically catalyze the **same chemical reaction**, but they may do so with different efficiencies or under different regulatory controls. *Forms of different enzyme that catalyze same reactions* - This describes a scenario where different enzymes might exhibit **catalytic promiscuity** or broad specificity, but not isoenzymes. - Isoenzymes are always derived from the **same parent enzyme** and catalyze the identical reaction.
Obstetrics and Gynecology
1 questionsThe thickness of the endometrium at the time of implantation is:
NEET-PG 2012 - Obstetrics and Gynecology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 171: The thickness of the endometrium at the time of implantation is:
- A. 7 - 10 mm (Correct Answer)
- B. 20 - 30 mm
- C. 30 - 40 mm
- D. 3 - 4 mm
Explanation: ***7 - 10 mm*** - At the time of **implantation** (day 6-10 post-fertilization, around day 20-24 of the menstrual cycle), the endometrium is in the **mid-secretory phase** and measures **7-10 mm** in thickness. - This is the **optimal thickness** for successful embryo implantation, characterized by a receptive endometrium with **decidualization**, **spiral artery development**, and **glycogen-rich glandular secretions**. - Endometrial thickness <7 mm is associated with **poor implantation rates** and reduced pregnancy success. *3 - 4 mm* - An endometrial thickness of 3-4 mm is **too thin** for successful implantation. - This thickness is typically seen in the **early proliferative phase** (immediately after menstruation), not during the implantation window. - Thin endometrium (<7 mm) is associated with **poor receptivity** and lower pregnancy rates in both natural conception and assisted reproduction. *20 - 30 mm* - An endometrial thickness of 20-30 mm is **abnormally thick** and not conducive to normal implantation. - Such thickness may indicate **endometrial hyperplasia**, **polyps**, or other pathological conditions requiring investigation. *30 - 40 mm* - An endometrial thickness of 30-40 mm is **severely abnormal** and would likely prevent successful implantation. - This extreme thickness suggests significant pathology such as **endometrial hyperplasia** or **malignancy** and requires urgent evaluation.
Physiology
2 questionsWhich of the following is NOT a location where multi-unit smooth muscle is present?
What happens to the pressure in the calf compartment during the heel touch phase of walking?
NEET-PG 2012 - Physiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 171: Which of the following is NOT a location where multi-unit smooth muscle is present?
- A. Blood vessels
- B. Iris
- C. Gut (Correct Answer)
- D. Ciliary muscle
Explanation: ***Gut*** - The gut primarily contains **unitary (single-unit) smooth muscle**, characterized by cells connected by **gap junctions** that allow for synchronized contractions (e.g., peristalsis). - This type of smooth muscle exhibits **spontaneous rhythmic contractions** due to pacemaker cells, and its activity is modulated by neural and hormonal inputs rather than requiring individual innervation of each cell. - Multi-unit smooth muscle is **NOT present** in the gut. *Blood vessels* - Many larger blood vessels (e.g., large arteries) contain **multi-unit smooth muscle**, which allows for **fine, graded control** over vascular tone and blood flow. - Each muscle cell is typically **innervated individually**, enabling precise regulation of contraction strength. *Iris* - The iris contains **multi-unit smooth muscle** (e.g., sphincter pupillae and dilator pupillae muscles) which control pupil size. - These muscles require **individual innervation** to allow for very fine and precise movements in response to light intensity changes. *Ciliary muscle* - The ciliary muscle of the eye contains **multi-unit smooth muscle**, which controls the shape of the lens for accommodation (focusing). - These muscle fibers are **individually innervated** to allow precise control of lens curvature for near and far vision.
Question 172: What happens to the pressure in the calf compartment during the heel touch phase of walking?
- A. Decreases compared to resting pressure
- B. First increases and then decreases
- C. Remains the same as resting pressure
- D. Increases compared to resting pressure (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Increases compared to resting pressure*** - During **heel strike (initial contact)**, the calf muscles (**gastrocnemius and soleus**) contract eccentrically to control ankle dorsiflexion and decelerate the foot - Simultaneous **weight bearing** and **muscle contraction** within the confined fascial compartment lead to increased intramuscular pressure - This is a well-documented phenomenon in gait biomechanics and exercise physiology *Decreases compared to resting pressure* - Incorrect: Muscle activation and weight bearing during initial contact inherently increase compartment pressure - Pressure decrease occurs during swing phase when the limb is unloaded and muscles are relaxed *First increases and then decreases* - While pressure varies throughout the complete gait cycle, the **heel touch phase specifically** is characterized by an initial pressure increase - The brief duration of heel strike does not typically show a biphasic pressure pattern within this single phase *Remains the same as resting pressure* - Incorrect: Active weight bearing and eccentric muscle contraction during heel strike necessarily elevate intramuscular pressure above resting levels - Resting pressure only occurs when the limb is unloaded and muscles are inactive