Anatomy
4 questionsWhich of the following is a traction epiphysis ?
Cricoid cartilage lies at which vertebral level?
Azygos vein drains into:
Which of the following is not a branch of the inferior mesenteric artery?
NEET-PG 2012 - Anatomy NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 151: Which of the following is a traction epiphysis ?
- A. Tibial condyles
- B. Head of femur
- C. Trochanter of femur
- D. Coracoid process of scapula (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Coracoid process of scapula*** - A **traction epiphysis** (also called atavistic epiphysis) serves as an attachment site for muscles and tendons, transferring muscle force to the bone without bearing significant weight or forming articular surfaces. - The **coracoid process** is a classic example, anchoring the **pectoralis minor, coracobrachialis, and short head of biceps brachii**, as well as important ligaments (coracoclavicular and coracoacromial). - It develops from a separate ossification center purely for muscle and ligament attachment, not for articulation or weight-bearing. *Tibial condyles* - The **tibial condyles** are **pressure epiphyses** (articular epiphyses) that form the superior articular surface of the tibia. - They articulate with the femoral condyles to form the knee joint and bear significant weight during standing and movement. - Their primary function is joint formation and contribution to longitudinal bone growth. *Trochanter of femur* - The **greater and lesser trochanters** are large bony prominences that serve as muscle attachment sites, but they are better classified as **apophyses** rather than true traction epiphyses. - An **apophysis** is a secondary ossification center that does not contribute to longitudinal bone growth and serves primarily for muscle attachment. - While functionally similar to traction epiphyses, the term "traction epiphysis" is more specifically applied to structures like the coracoid process, tibial tuberosity, and calcaneal tuberosity. *Head of femur* - The **head of femur** is a classic **pressure epiphysis** that articulates with the acetabulum to form the hip joint. - It bears significant body weight and contributes to the longitudinal growth of the femur. - Its primary functions are joint formation and weight transmission, not muscle attachment.
Question 152: Cricoid cartilage lies at which vertebral level?
- A. C3
- B. C6 (Correct Answer)
- C. T1
- D. T4
Explanation: **C6** - The **cricoid cartilage** is an important anatomical landmark, as it signifies the transition from the **laryngopharynx** to the **esophagus** and the start of the **trachea**. - Its location at **C6 vertebral level** is significant for procedures like tracheostomy and in identifying the narrowest part of the adult airway. *C3* - The C3 vertebral level is typically associated with the **hyoid bone**, which is superior to the cricoid cartilage. - The **epiglottis** and the superior aspect of the larynx are more commonly found at C3-C4. *T1* - The T1 vertebral level is in the **thoracic spine**, well below the neck, and is associated with the **apex of the lung** and the **first rib**. - The airway structures at this level are primarily the **trachea** as it enters the thorax. *T4* - The T4 vertebral level is significant as it marks the approximate location of the **carina**, where the trachea bifurcates into the main bronchi. - This level is much lower than the larynx and cricoid cartilage.
Question 153: Azygos vein drains into:
- A. Left brachiocephalic vein
- B. Inferior vena cava
- C. Superior vena cava (Correct Answer)
- D. Right brachiocephalic vein
Explanation: Wait, what? Azygos vein drains into: ***Superior vena cava*** - The **azygos vein** ascends along the right side of the vertebral column and typically arches over the root of the right lung before draining into the **superior vena cava (SVC)**. - This anatomical arrangement allows the azygos system to collect venous blood from the posterior thoracic and abdominal walls, as well as the bronchi and esophagus, ultimately returning it to the systemic circulation via the SVC [1]. *Left brachiocephalic vein* - The **left brachiocephalic vein** drains blood from the upper left limb and left side of the head and neck. - It merges with the right brachiocephalic vein to form the SVC; the azygos vein does not directly drain into it. *Inferior vena cava* - The **inferior vena cava (IVC)** collects deoxygenated blood from the lower body. - The azygos system primarily drains structures above the diaphragm, distinct from the IVC's drainage area. *Right brachiocephalic vein* - The **right brachiocephalic vein** drains blood from the upper right limb and right side of the head and neck. - While it contributes to the formation of the SVC, the azygos vein's direct connection is to the SVC itself, not the right brachiocephalic vein.
Question 154: Which of the following is not a branch of the inferior mesenteric artery?
- A. Left colic
- B. Middle rectal (Correct Answer)
- C. Superior rectal
- D. Sigmoidal artery
Explanation: ***Middle rectal artery*** - The **middle rectal artery** [2] is typically a branch of the **internal iliac artery** [2], supplying the middle part of the rectum. - It is not a direct branch of the inferior mesenteric artery. *Left colic artery* - The left colic artery is a direct branch of the **inferior mesenteric artery** [1], supplying the distal transverse colon and descending colon. - It forms an important anastomosis with the middle colic artery [1]. *Superior rectal artery* - The **superior rectal artery** is the terminal branch of the **inferior mesenteric artery**, supplying the upper rectum. - This artery provides the primary arterial supply to the proximal large intestine structures. *Sigmoidal artery* - The **sigmoidal arteries** are typically 2-4 branches arising from the **inferior mesenteric artery**, supplying the sigmoid colon. - These arteries anastomose with branches of the superior rectal and left colic arteries.
Biochemistry
2 questionsWhat is the classification of the Y chromosome?
The anticodon region is an important part of which type of RNA?
NEET-PG 2012 - Biochemistry NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 151: What is the classification of the Y chromosome?
- A. Metacentric
- B. Submetacentric (Correct Answer)
- C. Acrocentric
- D. None of the options
Explanation: ***Submetacentric*** - The **Y chromosome** is classified as submetacentric because its **centromere** is located off-center, resulting in two arms of unequal length. - The short arm (Yp) is smaller than the long arm (Yq), but not as disproportionate as in acrocentric chromosomes. - The **X chromosome** is also submetacentric, making both sex chromosomes belong to this category. *Metacentric* - A **metacentric chromosome** has its **centromere** located in the middle, resulting in two arms of approximately equal length. - Examples include chromosomes 1, 3, 16, 19, and 20, which have nearly equal arm ratios unlike the Y chromosome. *Acrocentric* - An **acrocentric chromosome** has its **centromere** located very close to one end, creating one very short arm and one very long arm. - The five acrocentric human chromosomes are **13, 14, 15, 21, and 22**, which possess satellite DNA and nucleolar organizing regions (NORs) on their short arms. - The **Y chromosome is NOT acrocentric** despite historical confusion; it has a more centrally positioned centromere than true acrocentric chromosomes. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because the Y chromosome has a specific and well-established classification as **submetacentric** based on its centromere position and arm ratio.
Question 152: The anticodon region is an important part of which type of RNA?
- A. r-RNA
- B. m-RNA
- C. t-RNA (Correct Answer)
- D. hn-RNA
Explanation: **t-RNA** - The **anticodon region** is a critical component of **transfer RNA (tRNA)**, responsible for recognizing and binding to the complementary codon on mRNA during protein synthesis. - This interaction ensures that the correct **amino acid** is delivered to the growing polypeptide chain according to the genetic code. *r-RNA* - **Ribosomal RNA (rRNA)** is a structural and enzymatic component of **ribosomes**, which are the cellular machinery for protein synthesis. - While rRNA plays a crucial role in forming **peptide bonds** and facilitating translation, it does not possess an anticodon region. *m-RNA* - **Messenger RNA (mRNA)** carries the **genetic code** from DNA to the ribosomes in the form of codons, which specify the sequence of amino acids for protein synthesis. - mRNA molecules have codons, but they do not have an **anticodon region**; instead, they are read by the anticodons of tRNA. *hn-RNA* - **Heterogeneous nuclear RNA (hnRNA)** is a precursor to mRNA in eukaryotic cells, containing both exons and introns. - It undergoes extensive processing, including **splicing**, to become mature mRNA, but it does not have an **anticodon region**.
Orthopaedics
1 questionsWhich of the following conditions can cause locking of the knee joint?
NEET-PG 2012 - Orthopaedics NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 151: Which of the following conditions can cause locking of the knee joint?
- A. Osgood Schlatter
- B. Tuberculosis of knee
- C. a and b both
- D. Loose body in knee joint (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Loose body in knee joint*** - A **loose body** (e.g., a fragment of cartilage or bone) can get trapped between the articular surfaces of the knee joint, mechanically obstructing its movement and causing sudden, painful **locking**. - This mechanical impingement prevents full extension or flexion of the knee until the loose body shifts, leading to episodic locking symptoms. *Osgood Schlatter* - This condition involves inflammation and potential avulsion of the **tibial tuberosity** where the patellar tendon inserts. - It primarily causes pain and swelling below the kneecap, especially during physical activity, but does not typically result in true mechanical locking of the joint. *Tuberculosis of knee* - **Tuberculosis of the knee joint** is an infectious arthritis that causes chronic pain, swelling, and gradual destruction of articular cartilage and bone. - While it can lead to pain and limited range of motion, it usually does not present with the sudden, intermittent mechanical locking characteristic of a loose body. *a and b both* - Neither **Osgood Schlatter** nor **Tuberculosis of the knee** typically cause the characteristic mechanical locking sensation described for a loose body in the joint. - Each of these conditions has distinct pathophysiological mechanisms and clinical presentations that do not involve a physical obstruction causing locking.
Physiology
1 questionsHaploid number of chromosomes is first seen in?
NEET-PG 2012 - Physiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 151: Haploid number of chromosomes is first seen in?
- A. Spermatogonia
- B. Primary spermatocytes
- C. Secondary spermatocyte (Correct Answer)
- D. Spermatids
Explanation: ***Secondary spermatocyte*** - A secondary spermatocyte is formed after **meiosis I**, where the homologous chromosomes are separated, resulting in a cell with a **haploid number of chromosomes (n)**, although each chromosome still consists of two sister chromatids. - This is the **first stage** where haploidy is achieved in spermatogenesis. - These cells are transient and quickly undergo meiosis II to form spermatids. *Spermatogonia* - Spermatogonia are **diploid (2n)** germline stem cells that undergo mitosis to produce more spermatogonia or differentiate into primary spermatocytes. - They contain the full complement of chromosomes found in somatic cells. *Primary spermatocytes* - Primary spermatocytes are also **diploid (2n)** cells that enter meiosis I. - Before meiosis I, DNA replication occurs, so each chromosome consists of two sister chromatids, but the cell still maintains a diploid chromosome number. *Spermatids* - Spermatids are formed after **meiosis II** from secondary spermatocytes and are also **haploid (n)**. - However, secondary spermatocytes become haploid **earlier** in the process, immediately following the reductional division of meiosis I.
Surgery
2 questionsIVC filter is used in the following situations except -
What is the appropriate treatment for an incidentally detected appendicular carcinoid tumor measuring 2.5 cm?
NEET-PG 2012 - Surgery NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 151: IVC filter is used in the following situations except -
- A. To reduce symptoms
- B. As primary treatment for acute DVT (Correct Answer)
- C. Negligible size of emboli
- D. To prevent progress of native blood vessel disease
Explanation: ***As primary treatment for acute DVT*** - The **primary treatment** for **acute deep vein thrombosis (DVT)** is **anticoagulation therapy** (heparin, warfarin, or DOACs) to prevent clot propagation and embolization. - An **IVC filter** is **NOT primary therapy**—it is reserved for specific situations and does not treat the underlying thrombosis. - **Indications for IVC filter include:** - Absolute **contraindication to anticoagulation** (active bleeding, recent hemorrhagic stroke) - **Recurrent PE despite adequate anticoagulation** - Complications from anticoagulation therapy - Therefore, using IVC filter as primary treatment for acute DVT is **incorrect and not indicated**. *Negligible size of emboli* - While IVC filters trap **large emboli**, the concept of "negligible size emboli" is not a standard clinical consideration for filter placement. - IVC filters are indicated based on **risk of PE** and **contraindications to anticoagulation**, not based on emboli size assessment. *To reduce symptoms* - **IVC filters** do not reduce symptoms of DVT such as pain, swelling, or discomfort. - They function as a **mechanical barrier** to prevent emboli from reaching pulmonary circulation. - Symptom management requires anticoagulation, compression therapy, and leg elevation. *To prevent progress of native blood vessel disease* - IVC filters do not influence progression of underlying **vascular disease** such as atherosclerosis or chronic venous insufficiency. - Their sole function is **mechanical prevention of PE**, not disease modification.
Question 152: What is the appropriate treatment for an incidentally detected appendicular carcinoid tumor measuring 2.5 cm?
- A. Right hemicolectomy (Correct Answer)
- B. Limited resection of the right colon
- C. Total colectomy
- D. Appendicectomy
Explanation: ***Right hemicolectomy*** - An appendiceal carcinoid tumor **larger than 2 cm** (or with **mesoappendix invasion, positive margins, or high-grade features**) warrants a right hemicolectomy due to a significantly higher risk of lymph node metastasis (20-30%). - This 2.5 cm tumor clearly exceeds the 2 cm threshold, making right hemicolectomy the standard of care. - This procedure ensures adequate oncological margins and removal of regional lymph nodes, which is crucial for complete treatment. *Limited resection of the right colon* - This option is insufficient for an appendiceal carcinoid of this size, as it may not remove all regional lymph nodes or provide adequate oncological margins. - Limited resection lacks the systematic lymphadenectomy required for tumors exceeding 2 cm. *Total colectomy* - This is an **overly aggressive** and unnecessary procedure for an isolated appendiceal carcinoid tumor, even one of this size. - Total colectomy is typically reserved for diffuse colonic involvement, multifocal tumors, or specific genetic syndromes, which is not indicated here. *Appendicectomy* - An appendicectomy alone is only appropriate for very small appendiceal carcinoid tumors, typically **less than 1 cm** in size, with negative margins and without evidence of mesoappendix invasion or aggressive features. - For a 2.5 cm tumor, the risk of regional lymph node involvement (20-30%) is too high for appendicectomy to be considered adequate oncological treatment.