Anatomy
7 questionsWhich of the following is not a branch of the inferior mesenteric artery?
Ovarian fossa is formed by all except?
What is Little's area, also known as Kiesselbach's plexus?
Right ovarian artery is a branch of ?
Where is the neurovascular plane located in the anterior abdominal wall?
Which of the following is NOT a branch of 1st part of maxillary artery?
The right coronary artery supplies blood to all of the following structures, except?
NEET-PG 2012 - Anatomy NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 131: Which of the following is not a branch of the inferior mesenteric artery?
- A. Left colic
- B. Middle rectal (Correct Answer)
- C. Superior rectal
- D. Sigmoidal artery
Explanation: ***Middle rectal artery*** - The **middle rectal artery** [2] is typically a branch of the **internal iliac artery** [2], supplying the middle part of the rectum. - It is not a direct branch of the inferior mesenteric artery. *Left colic artery* - The left colic artery is a direct branch of the **inferior mesenteric artery** [1], supplying the distal transverse colon and descending colon. - It forms an important anastomosis with the middle colic artery [1]. *Superior rectal artery* - The **superior rectal artery** is the terminal branch of the **inferior mesenteric artery**, supplying the upper rectum. - This artery provides the primary arterial supply to the proximal large intestine structures. *Sigmoidal artery* - The **sigmoidal arteries** are typically 2-4 branches arising from the **inferior mesenteric artery**, supplying the sigmoid colon. - These arteries anastomose with branches of the superior rectal and left colic arteries.
Question 132: Ovarian fossa is formed by all except?
- A. Internal iliac artery
- B. Ureter
- C. Obliterated umbilical artery
- D. Round ligament of ovary (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Round ligament of ovary*** - The **round ligament of ovary** (ovarian ligament) connects the ovary to the lateral wall of the uterus and does NOT form any boundary of the ovarian fossa [1]. - It lies medial to the ovary and is not involved in forming the depression of the ovarian fossa [1]. - This ligament anchors the ovary but is separate from the peritoneal boundaries defining the fossa [1]. *Obliterated umbilical artery* - The **obliterated umbilical artery** (medial umbilical ligament) forms the **anterior boundary** of the ovarian fossa [2]. - This is a key anatomical landmark running along the lateral pelvic wall anterior to the ovary [2]. *Internal iliac artery* - The **internal iliac artery** forms the **posterior boundary** of the ovarian fossa [2]. - It lies on the lateral pelvic wall, deep and posterior to the ovarian fossa [2]. - This is one of the main structures defining the fossa's posterior limit [2]. *Ureter* - The **ureter** runs along the lateral pelvic wall and forms part of the **posterior/floor boundary** of the ovarian fossa [2]. - It passes posteroinferior to the ovary, contributing to the fossa's posterior limits [2].
Question 133: What is Little's area, also known as Kiesselbach's plexus?
- A. Anteroinferior lateral wall
- B. Anteroinferior nasal septum (Correct Answer)
- C. Posteroinferior lateral wall
- D. Posteroinferior nasal septum
Explanation: ***Anteroinferior nasal septum*** - **Little's area**, or **Kiesselbach's plexus**, is a well-vascularized region located on the **anteroinferior portion of the nasal septum**. - This area is a common site for **anterior epistaxis** (nosebleeds) due to its superficial position and rich anastomotic blood supply from several arteries. *Anteroinferior lateral wall* - While the lateral nasal wall also contributes to the nasal blood supply, the specific region of **Little's area** is on the **septum**, not the lateral wall. - The **lateral wall** contains structures like the turbinates and their associated vascular networks, which are distinct from Kiesselbach's plexus. *Posteroinferior lateral wall* - The **posterior and inferior aspects** of the nasal cavity are not where Kiesselbach's plexus is predominantly located. - Bleeding from this posterior region often indicates **posterior epistaxis**, which can be more severe and difficult to control. *Posteroinferior nasal septum* - The **posterior nasal septum** is supplied by different arteries, such as branches of the **sphenopalatine artery**. - Bleeding from this part of the septum is also considered **posterior epistaxis** and is not typically associated with Kiesselbach's plexus.
Question 134: Right ovarian artery is a branch of ?
- A. Abdominal aorta (Correct Answer)
- B. Right internal iliac
- C. Common iliac
- D. External iliac
Explanation: ***Abdominal aorta*** - The **right ovarian artery** typically originates directly from the **abdominal aorta**, just inferior to the renal arteries [1]. - This is a direct branch, supplying blood to the **right ovary**, **fallopian tube**, and surrounding structures [1]. *Right internal iliac* - The **internal iliac artery** primarily supplies the **pelvic organs**, gluteal region, and medial thigh [1]. - While it has branches to pelvic structures, the ovarian artery does not originate from it. *Common iliac* - The **common iliac artery** bifurcates into the **internal and external iliac arteries** at the level of the sacroiliac joint. - It does not directly give off the ovarian artery. *External iliac* - The **external iliac artery** continues as the **femoral artery** below the inguinal ligament, primarily supplying the lower limb. - It does not give off branches to the ovary.
Question 135: Where is the neurovascular plane located in the anterior abdominal wall?
- A. Between external oblique and internal oblique
- B. Between internal oblique and transversus abdominis (Correct Answer)
- C. Below transversus abdominis
- D. Above external oblique
Explanation: ***Between internal oblique and transversus abdominis*** - This space, often referred to as the **transversus abdominis plane (TAP)**, contains the major neurovascular bundles supplying the anterior abdominal wall [1]. - The nerves here are the lower **thoracic (T7-T11)** and **iliohypogastric/ilioinguinal (L1) nerves**, along with accompanying blood vessels [1]. *Between external oblique and internal oblique* - This fascial plane primarily houses some superficial nerves and vessels but not the main neurovascular supply to the abdominal wall muscles. - The major neurovascular bundles for deeper muscle layers and skin are located deeper to the **internal oblique** [1]. *Below transversus abdominis* - Below the **transversus abdominis** muscle lies the **transversalis fascia**, an extraperitoneal fat layer, and then the **peritoneum**. - This deeper region primarily contains retroperitoneal structures and organs, not the main neurovascular plane for the abdominal wall. *Above external oblique* - The layer above the **external oblique** muscle is primarily subcutaneous tissue and skin. - While superficial nerves and vessels are present here, this is not the main neurovascular plane that supplies the muscles of the anterior abdominal wall.
Question 136: Which of the following is NOT a branch of 1st part of maxillary artery?
- A. Accessory meningeal artery
- B. Inferior alveolar artery
- C. Middle meningeal artery
- D. Greater palatine artery (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Greater palatine artery*** - This artery is a branch of the **third part** of the maxillary artery, which supplies the palate. - The third part of the maxillary artery (also known as the pterygopalatine part) gives off branches that pass through the pterygopalatine fossa. *Middle meningeal artery* - This is a significant branch of the **first part** of the maxillary artery, entering the cranial cavity via the **foramen spinosum** to supply the dura mater. - It is often injured in head trauma, leading to an **epidural hematoma**. *Accessory meningeal artery* - This artery also arises from the **first part** of the maxillary artery and enters the skull through the **foramen ovale** to supply the dura mater. - It is a smaller branch compared to the middle meningeal artery. *Inferior alveolar artery* - It is a branch of the **first part** of the maxillary artery, descending to enter the mandible via the **mandibular foramen** to supply the teeth and bone of the mandible. - It gives off the **mylohyoid branch** before entering the mandibular foramen.
Question 137: The right coronary artery supplies blood to all of the following structures, except?
- A. Posterior wall of left ventricle
- B. SA node
- C. Anterior 2/3 of ventricular septum (Correct Answer)
- D. AV node
Explanation: ***Anterior 2/3 of ventricular septum*** - The **anterior two-thirds of the interventricular septum** is primarily supplied by the **septal branches of the left anterior descending artery** (LAD) [1], a branch of the left coronary artery. - Therefore, the right coronary artery does not typically supply this region. *SA node* - The **SA node** (sinoatrial node) is the heart's natural pacemaker and receives its blood supply from the **right coronary artery** in about 60% of individuals. - Occlusion of the RCA can lead to symptomatic **bradycardia** or **SA node dysfunction**. *AV node* - The **AV node** (atrioventricular node), crucial for coordinating ventricular contraction, is supplied by the **right coronary artery** in approximately 90% of individuals [1]. - Infarcts in the RCA territory can manifest as various degrees of **heart block**. *Posterior wall of left ventricle* - The **posterior wall of the left ventricle** is predominantly supplied by the **posterior descending artery (PDA)**, which in about 80% of people, is a terminal branch of the **right coronary artery** [1]. - This supply is vital for the contractile function of the left ventricle's posterior aspect.
Pathology
1 questionsIn which organ are corpora amylacea typically observed in a pathological context?
NEET-PG 2012 - Pathology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 131: In which organ are corpora amylacea typically observed in a pathological context?
- A. Thymus
- B. Lymph node
- C. Spleen
- D. Prostate (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Prostate*** - **Corpora amylacea**, also known as prostatic concretions, are common, benign findings in the prostate gland, especially with increasing age. - They are composed of glycoproteins and often found within the **acini and ducts of the prostate**. *Thymus* - The thymus is known for **Hassall's corpuscles**, which are epithelial reticular cells arranged concentrically, playing a role in T-cell selection. - **Corpora amylacea** are not typically found in the normal thymus. *Lymph node* - Lymph nodes are characterized by their lymphoid follicles, germinal centers, and medullary cords. - While they can have various inclusions or changes in disease states, **corpora amylacea** are not a typical pathological finding in lymph nodes. *Spleen* - The spleen is primarily involved in filtering blood and immune responses, with distinct red and white pulp regions. - **Corpora amylacea** are not associated with the normal or pathological histology of the spleen.
Physiology
1 questionsWhat is the consequence of tibial nerve injury/palsy?
NEET-PG 2012 - Physiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 131: What is the consequence of tibial nerve injury/palsy?
- A. Loss of plantar flexion (Correct Answer)
- B. Dorsiflexion of foot at ankle joint
- C. Loss of sensation of dorsum of foot
- D. Paralysis of muscles of anterior compartment of leg
Explanation: **Loss of plantar flexion** - The **tibial nerve** innervates the muscles of the **posterior compartment of the leg**, which are primarily responsible for **plantar flexion** of the foot. - Injury to this nerve directly impairs the function of muscles like the gastrocnemius, soleus, and tibialis posterior, leading to a significant loss of the ability to point the foot downwards. *Dorsiflexion of foot at ankle joint* - **Dorsiflexion** is primarily mediated by muscles in the **anterior compartment of the leg**, such as the tibialis anterior, which are innervated by the **deep fibular nerve**. - Tibial nerve injury would not directly affect these muscles or their function; rather, it leads to issues with the opposing action. *Loss of sensation of dorsum of foot* - Sensation to the **dorsum of the foot** is primarily supplied by the **superficial fibular nerve** (for most of the dorsum) and the **deep fibular nerve** (for the first web space). - While the tibial nerve provides sensation to the sole of the foot, it does not typically innervate the dorsum. *Paralysis of muscles of anterior compartment of leg* - The muscles of the **anterior compartment of the leg** (e.g., tibialis anterior, extensor digitorum longus, extensor hallucis longus) are innervated by the **deep fibular nerve**. - A tibial nerve injury would paralyze muscles in the posterior compartment, not the anterior compartment.
Surgery
1 questionsWhat is the appropriate treatment for an incidentally detected appendicular carcinoid tumor measuring 2.5 cm?
NEET-PG 2012 - Surgery NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 131: What is the appropriate treatment for an incidentally detected appendicular carcinoid tumor measuring 2.5 cm?
- A. Right hemicolectomy (Correct Answer)
- B. Limited resection of the right colon
- C. Total colectomy
- D. Appendicectomy
Explanation: ***Right hemicolectomy*** - An appendiceal carcinoid tumor **larger than 2 cm** (or with **mesoappendix invasion, positive margins, or high-grade features**) warrants a right hemicolectomy due to a significantly higher risk of lymph node metastasis (20-30%). - This 2.5 cm tumor clearly exceeds the 2 cm threshold, making right hemicolectomy the standard of care. - This procedure ensures adequate oncological margins and removal of regional lymph nodes, which is crucial for complete treatment. *Limited resection of the right colon* - This option is insufficient for an appendiceal carcinoid of this size, as it may not remove all regional lymph nodes or provide adequate oncological margins. - Limited resection lacks the systematic lymphadenectomy required for tumors exceeding 2 cm. *Total colectomy* - This is an **overly aggressive** and unnecessary procedure for an isolated appendiceal carcinoid tumor, even one of this size. - Total colectomy is typically reserved for diffuse colonic involvement, multifocal tumors, or specific genetic syndromes, which is not indicated here. *Appendicectomy* - An appendicectomy alone is only appropriate for very small appendiceal carcinoid tumors, typically **less than 1 cm** in size, with negative margins and without evidence of mesoappendix invasion or aggressive features. - For a 2.5 cm tumor, the risk of regional lymph node involvement (20-30%) is too high for appendicectomy to be considered adequate oncological treatment.